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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Further understanding of betrothal? | Matt 1:24 | Karineena | 31206 | ||
If there was no sexual relation during a Jewish betrothal period, and they were not married when Jesus was born, why would it be important to state "he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son"? Since they were both under Jewish law and known to be righteous, wouldn't this be assumed? | ||||||
2 | Further understanding of betrothal? | Matt 1:24 | Mommapbs | 31213 | ||
Greetings! I'm going to take a "common sense" stab at this one! Regardless of how "righteous" we assume others to be, there are no guarantees without proof. God provided this in the statement "he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son." Here's what I think the "proof was!" Although Scripture does not give the details, we could safely assume that Mary had at least a midwife in attendence at the birth of Jesus. Remember Bethlehem was full of people at the time, so it is very probable that there were other women available to assist this first-time mother! It would be physically obvious to Mary's birth attendents that she was a virgin. |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Matt 1:24 | Author | ||
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leegreerwin | ||
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Jesusman | ||
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Karineena | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Karineena | ||
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Mommapbs | ||
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2007 mouse |