Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | Emmaus | 170985 | ||
Searcher, Scripture says that a husband and wife will "become one flesh." Where there is no consummation they do not "become one flesh" and there is no binding marriage unless both parties have agreed to this beforehand. A sacred or holy act, i.e. marriage, cannot be based on a sin (lie) of ommission, which the failure to dislose impotence is. Emmaus |
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2 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | Searcher56 | 171017 | ||
Scripture ... Gen 2:21-24, 29:14; Exo 22:16-17; Deu 22:25-30; Jdg 9:2; 2Sa 5:1; 2Sa 19:12-13; Mat 19:5-6; Mar 10:8; Eph 5:22-33 … God's day to you, Emmaus, my friend, I did a study on "one flesh" ... not looking at "experts". I think when looking at Matthew 19:5-6, we need to look at the context of the OT passage … Genesis 2:21-24 21 So the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon the man, and he slept; then He took one of his ribs and closed up the flesh at that place. 22 The LORD God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the man, and brought her to the man. 23 The man said, "This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man." 24 For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh. I do not see any sexual union taking place when Adam says this. I see he saying that Eve (Woman) was part of his flesh. I think this is supported by Ephesians 5:25-33, where it talks about love and the correlation of Christ and the church. See what Laban said to Jacob (Gen 29:14), as well as Shechem (Jdg 9:2) and others (2Sa 5:1; 2Sa 19:12-13). I doubt there is any sexual union in these cases, nor Christ and the church. "If a man seduces a virgin who is not engaged” … is forced to marry her, unless her father says no (Exo 22:16-17). Contrast (Deu 22:25-30). So even having sex meant there was marriage. If consummation is the basis of making a marriage valid, I think we take out love, being subject and head (Eph 5:22-33). What happens if there is sex once, then one of the couple is never able to do it again? The failure to disclose problems should not be a basis for divorce or anullment ... maybe death (Deut 22:13-21). Searcher |
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3 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | Emmaus | 171020 | ||
Searcher, If a marriage has been consumnated and one party due to illness or injury is no longer able to engage in normal sexual relations, the marriage is still valid and binding. This is not an unusal circumstance and no fraud is involved. Emmaus |
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4 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | jlhetrick | 171028 | ||
Brother (or sister) emmaus, By this reasoning, do you believe that a man or woman who (due to physical reasons) can never perform the act of sex can never marry. What I am asking is; since they are unable to "consumate" a marriage through the sexual act, they can never be given in marriage? Christ's Love, Jeff |
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5 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | Emmaus | 171061 | ||
Jeff, The answer is yes. Your brother, not sister, Emmaus |
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6 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | jlhetrick | 171063 | ||
Hello Emmaus, I thought so but your profile didn't specify and I didn't want to make a mistake. Thanks for the dialogue brother, Jeff |
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