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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | jlhetrick | 170997 | ||
Hello Emmaus, You are talking legal talk and not scripture. Nothing in the bible (that I am aware of) qualifies a marriage as being fully "consummated" only after the physical act of sex has ocurred (as you seem to be saying is the case). What does "false pretenses" have to do with it? False pretenses is not mentioned as a legitimate reason for divorce in the Scriptures. So nanna's description may certainly be grounds for an annulment in the family court system of her state. But it is not legal grounds based on scripture (she did ask for bible relevent answers). Jeff |
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2 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | kalos | 171007 | ||
"One flesh" 'Becoming "one flesh" is used in Scripture for the consummating sexual act of marriage.' (Marriage http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/ BakersEvangelicalDictionary/) Marriage IS a legal term and therefore is defined by law -- both God's and man's. Marriage without a legal definition has no meaning. How does one enforce and support that which has not been defined? Does the Bible give us a clue as to the meaning of the word marriage? What constitutes marriage according to the Bible? 'The relational aspect of God's image is reflected in the bringing together of male and female in "one flesh" (Gen 1:27; 2:21-24).' (Marriage http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/ BakersEvangelicalDictionary/) How are a male and female brought together in "one flesh"? By the consummating sexual act of marriage. It is only logical that where there has been no consummating sexual act, there is no one flesh. Where there is no one flesh, there is no marriage. How can the prohibition against divorce apply when there has been no marriage? The question of divorce is moot when marriage between a particular man and woman doesn't exist. (See also Ephesians 5:31 and 1 Corinthians 6:16.) Grace to you, Kalos |
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3 | Divorce for no sexual life ever - OK? | Matt 19:9 | jlhetrick | 171016 | ||
Hello Kalos, In order to understand marriage from a biblical perspective (the only legitimate marriage) we must go back to the beginning. Literally, the very beginning of man. See: Genesis 2:19 - 25 When God created Adam He created him uniquely different from every other living thing. So unique, in fact, that there was none found suitable for him. So God took from Adam a part of his flesh (a rib) and formed a suitable partner in Eve. Genesis 2:24 (KJV) Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother—There shall be, by the order of God, a more intimate connection formed between the man and woman, than can subsist even between parents and children." "And they shall be one flesh—These words may be understood in a twofold sense. 1. These two shall be one flesh, shall be considered as one body, having no separate or independent rights, privileges, cares, concerns, etc., each being equally interested in all things that concern the marriage state. 2. These two shall be for the production of one flesh; from their union a posterity shall spring, as exactly resembling themselves as they do each other."—Adam Clarke's Commentary With this in mind; within marriage, #1) a man and a woman is "considered as one body......" The perfect example in scripture to support this is that of the Church. There are many individuals, however, it is referred to as "one body" Romans 12:4 - 5 4 For just as we have many members in one body and all the members do not have the same function, 5 so we, who are many, are one body in Christ, and individually members one of another. (NASB) Where does sex fit in the picture. #2) within marriage, it is the means through which God has ordained that the human race shall reproduce. We can also look to Soloman's words and agree that the physical enjoyment of sex is not only allowed for, but appropriate and encouraged between a husband and wife. What do we do with 1 Corinthians 15-16 15 Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ? Shall I then take away the members of Christ and make them members of a prostitute? May it never be! 16 Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, "THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH." Well, I would argue that based on the Baker's Evangelical Dictionary's interpretation of marriage (as presented in your post); the offender is now married to the prostitute. However, with the appllication of God's word, logic, and common sense, we can be assured that the physical act of sex is not the sole, establishing criteria for marriage as emmaus appears to be arguing. Christ's love, Jeff |
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