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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | "and he who marries.." Added or Deleted? | Matt 19:9 | itnog | 76013 | ||
Greetings all , I am asking about the extra clause " and he who marries a divorced woman commits adultery " that is stated is some translations of the Bible and other not...Why It is stated in Only some translations? I think this added part is IMPORTANT and makes a serious difference in this verse.. Which translation is more accurate? and Why there is a difference ? Thanks All |
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2 | "and he who marries.." Added or Deleted? | Matt 19:9 | Morant61 | 76018 | ||
Greetings Itnog! There isn't really an easy answer for this particular verse. The entire verse is fraught with textual variants throughout. However, general 'opinion' is that the best way to explain the various readings is that some copyists have expanded the shorter reading to make it harmonize with Mt. 5:32. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | accuracy of copying/translating | Matt 19:9 | itnog | 76022 | ||
Thanks Tim for your answer, Please execuse my language as I am not a native English Speaker. I did a search all of the day regarding this issue, but didn't find an explanation, exept the one that you stated: "some copyists have expanded the shorter reading to make it harmonize with Mt. 5:32" But deep in mind I am not convinced with this answer, especially when I found that this part is not in the Interlinear translation of the Bible....Which leads me to another issue : Those who added this part - aren't they "guilty" somehow by adding a clause like this only to make the verse similar to Mt. 5:32 ? Isn't our Bible the word of GOD and each word, not a complete clause must be translated/copied with the highest degree of accuracy? If you have a link/reference regarding this issue please post it ... Thanks again for Reading and for your time Amgad |
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4 | accuracy of copying/translating | Matt 19:9 | Morant61 | 76029 | ||
Greetings Amgad! Your English is probably better than mine! :-) Here is a link which discusses the basic principles of textual criticism: http://www.theology.edu/l425.htm Textual criticism is a complex and difficult issue. One must remember that we do not possess the orginals texts, so all we have are copies. Unfortunately, these copies disagree with one another, usually in minor matters. Usually, the disagreements are unintential. A scribe misread or misheard a section of text. Less often, a scribe would change the text to 'match' another text with which he was familar. The good news is that none of the variant readings impact any major doctrine whatsoever. Many times, it is easy to tell which reading was original. However, in this particular verse it is not so easy. I think either one would accurately reflect the New Testament teachings on the subject. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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