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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | translation of Matt 18:18 | Matt 18:18 | Stephanus | 181289 | ||
The Greek word here translated "shall have been" is found 171 times in the NT. On 167 of those occasions it is translated in past tense. Why not in this verse? | ||||||
2 | translation of Matt 18:18 | Matt 18:18 | Morant61 | 181290 | ||
Greetings Stephanus! Let me try to answer your question. It is a bit tricky in that Greek is different than English. The phrase translated as 'shall have been bound' is actually a translation of two Greek words, both verbs. The first word is the Future, Middle, Indicative, 3rd person, singular form of the Greek word 'to be'. The second word is the Perfect, Passive, Participle, Nominative, Neuter, Plural for of the Greek verb 'to bind'. These two words together form what is called a Periphrastic Future Perfect verb. So, simply put, the translators have correctly translated the two verbs as 'shall have been bound'. I hope this helps! p.s. - I am not sure where you got your statistics from. 'to be' is used 2,462 times in the NT, while 'to bind' is used 49 times in the NT. However, it is important to note the the 'tense' of a verb is a matter of form. In other words, the form of the words tells us what tense a verb is in, so how many times a verb is used doesn't really tell us how it should be translated since the form could be one of several tenses in Greek (each of which would be translated differently). Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Matt 18:18 | Author | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Cygnus | ||
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Darlene | ||
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Darlene King | ||
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ictus | ||
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sclayfog | ||
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lonnie | ||
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Evangelist Tee | ||
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Stephanus | ||
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Morant61 | ||
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Edd |