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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | I didn't get an answer | Matt 16:22 | He-man | 138975 | ||
Then why did he call him the "Devil"? Why is Satan translated the same in both places? Rev 20:7 and Matt 16:23? |
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2 | I didn't get an answer | Matt 16:22 | gilgames | 138988 | ||
I believe the answer is: the original greek text is using the same word Satanas, which means "adversary" one who one who opposes another in purpose or act. The devil opposes God in the act of creation and salvation, Peter opposed Jesus in taking His task. Here is a very good account for word analysis http://www.blueletterbible.org/ Select the Book, Chapter and verse, and click on "C" to get the world to word translation w/ the original. |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Matt 16:22 | Author | ||
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He-man | ||
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gilgames | ||
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Tess |