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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Binding and Losing? | Matt 16:19 | DocTrinsograce | 206006 | ||
Hi, quumoh.... Greek has very specific pronouns, unlike modern English. Even in "King James" English, the distinction surfaces. The word "ye" would be how you would refer to more than one person, while the word "thee" would be how you would refer to a single person. Like in the South where people say "you all." The other people overhearing this statement directed to Peter would have had no warrant to have applied it to themselves. Indeed, they'd have been linguistically incorrect to have done so. (They heard Jesus speaking to Satan in v23, did they apply that to themselves as well?) Indeed, I find that you are unique in the way you have exegeted this passage. Now, had you, instead, asserted that the disciples applied this to themselves based on Christ's assertion in Matthew 18:18 (where the pronouns agree), then I'd not have disagreed. As I said in my previous post, I agree with your conclusion, but not with your exegesis. A sound exegesis is every bit as important as the soundness of a conclusion. In Him, Doc |
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2 | Binding and Losing? | Matt 16:19 | azurelaw | 206014 | ||
Dear Brother Doc, Thank you. I did not know the difference between "ye" and "thee" until I read your post. Shall I assume "thy" as the possessive pronoun of "thee"? What about "thou"? Shalom Azure |
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