Results 1 - 4 of 4
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Canon 8 Council of Orange | Matt 16:17 | mark d seyler | 164455 | ||
Hi Doc, I'm sorry, I didn't understand your answer before. So you would say that the person who has not heard the Gospel has therefore no opportunity to receive salvation? If I may, how do you understand this scripture: Titus 2:11 "For the saving grace of God has appeared to all men," (LITV) Love in Christ, Mark |
||||||
2 | Canon 8 Council of Orange | Matt 16:17 | DocTrinsograce | 164457 | ||
Dear Mark, You asked, "So you would say that the person who has not heard the Gospel has therefore no opportunity to receive salvation?" All I can say is what Scripture says, excuse me for repeating my answer: "But how are they to call on Him in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in Him of whom they have never heard? And how are they to hear without someone preaching?" (Romans 10:14 ESV) The missionary drive to proclaim the Gospel to all men is rooted in a love of His flock. If we love Christ, we cannot do otherwise than to love His own. You asked about my understanding of Titus 2:11. The whole sentence from that passage reads, "For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people, training us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright, and godly lives in the present age, waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, who gave Himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession who are zealous for good works." (Titus 2:11-14 ESV) Given the context wherein Paul identifies a variety of people (see the preceding verses 2 through 9), as well as the primary participle "For," he necessarily means all classes of people -- even servants and Gentiles. The same phrase "all people" is used in Titus 3:2. There, expanding on the former argument, Titus is encouraged to teach his congregation to show meekness to all people, since those who comprise "a people for His own possession" are drawn from all classes. This was an utterly novel concept in a world in which class distinctions defined people's worth along with how they interacted with each other. In Him, Doc |
||||||
3 | Canon 8 Council of Orange | Matt 16:17 | mark d seyler | 164482 | ||
Hi Doc, Thank you for your patience with me. If I understand you correctly, you are saying that the only ones who can be saved are those to whom the gospel has been preached, and that the gospel has been preached to, not in fact "all men", but "all 'classes of' men". Is that correct? Do you think that a human preacher is required for the preaching of the Gospel? I am thinking of Romans 1, where Paul writes: Rom 1:19 because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. Rom 1:20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse. Rom 1:21 For even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Doesn't this say that mankind can all learn that is required to be responsible before God from observing His creation? If they "are without excuse" because of what they have seen in creation, does that not mean that creation contains an adequate revelation of God for God to be knowable, and for mankind to know what it must do? What are your thoughts? Love in Christ, Mark |
||||||
4 | Canon 8 Council of Orange | Matt 16:17 | DocTrinsograce | 164496 | ||
Dear Mark, You wrote, "...you are saying that the only ones who can be saved are those to whom the gospel has been preached..." No, I didn't mean to say that. The receiving of the Gospel message is the normal way in which men are saved. At the moment, I can think of one Biblical exception. Where there is one exception there might be others. However, I wouldn't want to base a doctrine on that single exception. Jesus said to him, "I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me." (John 14:6 ESV) "And there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved." (Acts 4:12 ESV) You wrote, "...that the gospel has been preached to, not in fact 'all men', but "all 'classes of men'." No, I did not say that either. Look back at my exposition on Paul's epistle to Titus. I did state, however, that the Gospel cannot have been preached to all men everywhere. You asked, "Do you think that a human preacher is required for the preaching of the Gospel?" No, because faith comes by hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17). The Word of God can be "heard" in audible, written, telegraphed, signed, or semaphored form. :-) Romans 1 through 3 is speaking about the universality of guilt. No man can offer an excuse to leave himself innocent. Best I can do for now... lunch time is over and people keep coming into my office asking questions. :-) In Him, Doc |
||||||