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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Was Jacob was right in gen.49:16-17? | Matt 10:6 | Alegrio Maduk | 225090 | ||
What is the difference between Gentiles and the lost sheep of the house of Israel? Is it right that the the tribe of Dan is the lost sheep of the house of Israel that was not included in Rev. 7:5-8? But why the tribe of Dan was mentioned in Gen. 49:16-17? | ||||||
2 | Was Jacob was right in gen.49:16-17? | Matt 10:6 | DocTrinsograce | 225092 | ||
Dear Alegrio, Welcome to the forum! The OT word gentile is from the Hebrew word goy (goyim for plural). It generally refers to a nation or a people; and most particularly, nations or peoples other than Israel (although there are exceptions; cf Genesis 35:7). In the NT the Greek word that Jews used was ethnos -- where we get our English word ethnic; as in an ethnic group. There are exceptions to its use there, too. All men fall into two groups: Jews and gentiles. It is true that in the initial sending of the disciples to proclaim the advent of Christ, He told them to only go to the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matthew 10:6). When Christ spoke of His sheep, He always meant the elect (John 10:29). Not all men are His sheep (John 10:26). The elect come from all the ends of the earth and throughout time (Revelation 7:9). I see not valid hermeneutic that would require that the pharse "lost sheep of Israel" in the NT has anything to do with the so called "lost tribes of Israel." In Him, Doc |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Matt 10:6 | Author | ||
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Alegrio Maduk | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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Warren F. Kenney |