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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | what does bible say about homosexuality | Lev 18:22 | Morant61 | 109307 | ||
Greetings Electionresults! The argument you advance is common among those who want to ignore what Scripture says about homosexuality, but it is not true. Allow me to illustrate. Consider Lev. 18. The context is sexual practices engaged in by the Egyptians which God does not want Israel to copy. Nothing is said in the passage about ritualistic sex or temple sex. Lev. 18:22 is quite plain and clear: "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable." Nothing is said about a temple or a pagan ritual. Nothing is said about monogomy. The same is true of Lev. 20:13. It says, "If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads." Was Paul unclear about what he meant? Rom. 1:26 - "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion." The approach you have used to confront the issue of homosexuality in Scripture is one of throwing as much mud on the subject as possible and hope that it sticks. It 'could' have been this. Or, it 'could' have meant that. Or, Paul was sexist. Which was it? Scripture is quite clear on the subject my friend. We must either obey it or not, but we can't simply explain it away. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | what does bible say about homosexuality | Lev 18:22 | electionresults | 109309 | ||
This conclusion finds further support in the Septuagint where the toevah is translated with the Greek word bdelygma . Fully consistent with the Hebrew, the Greek bdelygma means a ritual impurity. Once again, other Greek words were available, like anomia , meaning a violation of law or a wrong or a sin. That word could have been used to translate toevah. In fact, in some cases anomia was used to translate toevah- when the offense in question was not just a ritual impurity but also a real wrong of an injustice, like offering child sacrifice or having sex with another man s wife, in violation of his property rights. The Greek translators could have used anomia; they used bdelygma. Evidently, the Jews of that pre-Christian era simply did not understand Leviticus to forbid male-male sex because it is wrong in itself. They understood Leviticus to forbid male-male sex because it offended ancient Jewish sensitivities: it was dirty and Canaanite-like, it was unjewish. And that is exactly how they translated the Hebrew text into Greek before Christ. It makes no statement about the morality of homosexual acts as such. In todays society similar unclean acts might include picking ones nose, burping or passing gas. In Hebrew times wearing polyester, or eating shellfish etc. would have been just as much an abomination as men laying with men. I think its not that useful to get all hung up on Lev cleanliness codes which made pork eating and mixing of fibers just as terrible sins. The NT is more significant for Christians following Christ instead of Jews trying to follow the OT rituals to be accepted by God. Jesus said not a word even mistranslated about homosexuality. In fact he praised as a great example of love the Centurian's love for his slaveboy, an obviously pederastrial relationship. |
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