Results 1 - 8 of 8
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | wannabe | 37479 | ||
Hi Mustardseed, I know its a shame Modern Bibles don't explain this and I doubt if you find one that will. God Almighty's name was written in the original hebrew scriptures almost 7000 times in the Tetragrammaton form which spelled YHWH. The hebrews used consanants and no vowels and spoke with the vowels automatically,such as BLDG, we know means building. YHWH was pronounced Yahweh or Yehowah and "Yah" being the short form of the "Divine" name. It was later translated and more commonly known today as [JHVH]or Jehovah and "Jah" being the short form of the "Divine" name. So where did it go? God Almighty being the author of the bible and yet his name has been removed! Jesus and his followers spoke of an apostasy that would occur before the end, and it would happen with a lawless class of clergymen. [1Tim 4:1 2Thess 2:3 Acts 20:30 2Peter2:1,3 Rom16:17,18 1John 4:1,2,3 Jude3,4]. William Tyndale in 1530 published a translation of the first 5 books of the Bible and in this he included God Almighty's name and along with the title "LORD" [large letters] other translators followed after the Orthodox Jewish tradition and put "LORD" wherever they have seen "Yahweh" or "Adhonai" The Jews were afraid to utter the Divine name out loud so they would say "Adhonai" which means "Sovereign Lord" in English. Now remember, it was the Pharisees, the preservers of Orthodox Jewish tradition, who rejected Jesus and were told by him: "You have made the word of God invalid because of your tradition."[Mathew 15:6]in 1534 Martin Luther published his complete translation of the Bible, which he based on the original languages, and for some reason he did not use the name of God but used substitutes such as "HERR"[LORD] However he was aware of the Divine name, since on a sermon on Jeremiah 23:1-8, which he delivered in 1526, he said: "This name Jehovah, LORD, belongs exclusively to the true God. In 1543 Luther wrote with characteristic frankness: "That they [the Jews] now allege the name Jehovah [Yahweh] to be unpronounceable. What are they talking about? If it can be written with pen and ink, why should it not be spoken, which is much better than being written with pen and ink? Why don't they also call it unwriteable? unreadable or unthinkable? All things considered, there is something foul! You can grab a not so modern King James Version[1976] and see the name in 83:18 Exodus 6:3 *note "Jehovah" is the only name you will ever find in the Bible next to "God Almighty. HALLELUJAH! The "JAH" in this word means "Praise Jehovah you people!" it can be found in Revelation [depending on the Bible]Jesus own name means "Jehovah is salvation" Jonathan means "Jehovah has given" Joshua means "Jehovah is salvation" and so on. So why did the translators disrupt the word of God by adjusting it to fit their own tastes? And we trust modern day Bibles in how they have been translated, to put our trust in them for our salvation? [what kills me is the money being made off of these Bibles and when Jesus told his followers to spread the good news, it was for free!] Let me give you an example of different tanslations: KJV At John 1:1 reads "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Some earlier translations: 1808: "and the Word was a God", The New Testament in an Improved Version upon the basis of ArchBishop Newcomes New Translation: with a corrected text 1928:"and the Word was a divine being". La Bible du Centenaire, L Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel. 1935:"and the Word was divine" The Bible, An American translation, by J.M P.Smith and E.J.Goodspeed. 1946: " and of a divine kind was the Word", Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme. just a few examples of how translators can play with our minds. The Psalmist wrote: How long O God, will the adversary keep reproaching? Will the enemy keep treating your name with disrespect forever? Psalm 74:10 |
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2 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | Morant61 | 37493 | ||
Greetings Wannabe! May I address a couple of points which you raise in your post! 1) Is the Tetragrammaton unprounceable? As you pointed out, Hebrew originally had no written vowels. Once vowel points were added to the text, the Jews used the vowel points from Adonai with the Tetragrammaton. The result is simply this: no one knows how the Tetragrammaton was pronounced. Thus, one can write it YHWH, but no one knows what vowels belong with it. Therefore, it can be written, but it cannot be pronounced since we don't know how to pronounce it. 'Yahweh' seems like it may be accurate, but no one knows for sure. 2) Is there a conspiracy to hide God's name? This is a theory which is put forword quite often. However, there simply isn't any basis for it. We translate the Old Testament into English, not simply transliterate. Thus, is it a conspiracy to translate 'ish' as 'man'? If the translators simply transliterated the entire OT, almost no one would be able to read it. We know where the Tetragrammaton is used from the Hebrew text. We can find information about it in concordances. Most study bibles identify in footnotes when the Tetragrammaton is being used. Thus, it isn't a big secret. Well, I've got to get to bed! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | wannabe | 37503 | ||
Hi Tim, I agree, however would God have instructed it to be written almost 7000 times to only be left out because of inproper vowel placement? Jesus name in hebrew was pronounced Yeshua or perhaps Yehoshua, the truth is no human knows for certain. It cetainly was not Jesus. In Greek, l.e.sous' and in Italian Gesu [pronounced Djay.zoo']and so on. But must we stop using the name of Jesus because most, or all of us do not know its original pronunciation? No translator has suggested this. Would it show honor to Jesus to remove all mention of his name in the Bible and replace it with a mere title like "Teacher" or "Mediator"? So similiar comments can be made regarding all the names we read in the Bible. We pronounce them in our own language and do not try to imitate the original pronunciation. We say "Jeremiah" and not "Yir.meya'hu. Similarly we say Isaiah, although in his own day this prophet was likely known as Yesha.ya'hu So would us being his creation have the right to leave his name out of the book he authored because of pronunciation? Example: Psalm 83:18 in KJV used to read: "That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth. And now the newest KJV reads: "That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Lord, art the most high over all the earth. What sense can we make of this? Lord is a Title and is not God's name, a big no no for KJV. and that is just one example, all other modern bibles are doing the same thing. Do these translators of the KJV and many others do not understand what is telling us in Revelation 22:18,19? |
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4 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | Morant61 | 37515 | ||
Greetings Wannabe! Thanks for the response! I wasn't sure how to respond because you seem to be agreeing and disagreeing at the same time! :-) My concern is that we somehow turn God's name into a magical formula. Every language changes and has different ways of pronouncing sounds. Thus, you mentioned other OT names. We write Moses as 'Moses'. The Greeks wrote it as 'Moseus'. The Hebrews wrote is as 'Mosheh'. However we write it though, the name is the same. YHWH is the same. It is a name. In particular, it is a name which we don't know how to pronounce. Therefore, we could simply transliterate it everytime it occurs in the OT as 'YHWH' or we can translate it. The translators have chosen to translate it as 'LORD'. This actually is a defendable translation. You mentioned Luke 4:18-19. Here Jesus is quoting Is. 61:1-2, a passage where YHWH is used. Luke, writting under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit translates YHWH in v. 19 as 'kurios' or 'Lord'. My question is this: Was he wrong to do so? Was he hiding the Divine name? My understanding of the inspiration of Scripture is such that Luke wrote exactly what God wanted him to write, thus God Himself translated 'YHWH' as "Lord". So, why would it be wrong for us to do the same in the OT? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | wannabe | 37660 | ||
Hi Tim, The answer to your question's are in your posting. Luke was writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit and wrote exactly what God wanted him to write. Thats exactly how it was when he inspired his name to be written in the original scriptures almost 7000 times and not replaced with such substitutes as "LORD." What happens when man [being influenced by Satan and his buddies of course]takes the "Greatest Personage" out of the book he Authored and for man to live by, what you have is LORD or Lord and Jesus Christ and any one not knowing any better, where "LORD" is, is suppose to be Yahweh and people think it refers to Jesus Christ. A BIG MISTAKE. All that does is help support a Trinity Doctrine. |
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6 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | Morant61 | 37662 | ||
Greetings Wannabe! Thanks for your response my friend! I think you may have missed my point slightly. In Luke, under inspiration, YHWH is translated as Lord. Therefore, 'Lord' is an acceptable translation of YHWH! p.s. - What's wrong with supporting the Trinity! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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7 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | wannabe | 37689 | ||
Hi Tim, thanks for responding. | ||||||
8 | JEHOVAH RAFFA | Amos 1:1 | Morant61 | 38698 | ||
Greetings Wannabe! Our discussion about Luke 4:18-19 got me to thinking about how many times the Tetragrammaton is translated as 'Lord' in the New Testament. The answer is 50 times. Here are the verses where 'YHWH' is translated as 'kurios' or 'Lord' in the New Testament. ****************************************** The first reference is the New Testament verse, the second is the Old Testament verse being quoted. Mt. 3:3, Is. 40:1 Mt. 4:7, Deut. 6:16 Mt. 4:10, Deut. 6:13 Mt. 5:33, Num. 30:2 Mt. 21:9, Ps. 118:26 Mt. 21:42, Ps. 118:22-23 Mt. 22:37, Deut. 6:5 Mt. 22:44, Ps. 110:1 Mt. 23:39, Ps. 118:26 Mt. 27:10, Zech. 11:13 Mk. 1:3, Is. 40:3 Mk. 11:9, Ps. 118:26 Mk. 12:11, Ps. 118:22-23 Mk. 12:29-30, Deut. 6:4-5 Mk. 12:36, Ps. 110:1 Lk. 2:23, Ex. 13:12, 15 Lk. 3:4, Is. 40:3 Lk. 4:8, Deut. 6:13 Lk. 4:12, Deut. 6:16 Lk. 4:18-19, Is. 61:1-2 Lk. 10:27, Deut. 6:5 Lk. 13:35, Ps. 118:26 Lk. 19:38, Ps. 118:26 Lk. 20:42-43, Ps. 110:1 Jn. 1:23, Is. 40:3 Jn. 12:13, Ps. 118:25-26 Jn. 12:38, Is. 53:1 Acts 2:20-21, Joel 2:31-32 Acts 2:25, Ps. 16:8 Acts 2:34, Ps. 110:1 Acts 3:22, Deut. 18:15 Acts 4:26, Ps. 2:2 Acts 7:49, Is. 66:1 Acts 15:17, Amos 9:12 Rom. 4:8, Ps. 32:2 Rom. 9:29, Is. 1:9 Rom. 10:13, Joel 2:32 Rom. 11:34, Is. 40:13 Rom. 15:1, Ps. 117:1 1 Cor. 2:16, Is. 40:13 1 Cor. 3:20, Ps. 94:11 1 Cor. 10:26, Ps. 24:1 2 Tim. 2:19, Num. 16:5 Heb. 7:21, Ps. 110:4 Heb. 8:8-12, Jer. 31:31-34 Heb. 10:16-17, Jer. 31:33-34 Heb. 10:30, Deut. 32:36 Heb. 12:5-6, Prov. 3:11-12 Heb. 13:6, Ps. 118:6 1 Pet. 3:12, Ps. 34:15 *********************************************** Thus, one can only conclude that there is no plot to hide the Divine name by translating it as "LORD" since the New Testament translates it this way 50 times. In fact, it is the only word that I have found which is used to translate 'YHWH' in the New Testament. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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