Results 1 - 4 of 4
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | chpt 5 v 24 why did God threaten to kill | Ex 4:24 | biblicalman | 229759 | ||
Hi Welcome to the Forum. There is clearly a lot more behind this account than actually meets the eye. We might ask, for example, why did God wait until this point in time before dealing with Moses over the question of the circumcision of his son? The obvious answer is that while Moses was subject to his tribe he owed obedience to his tribe and his tribal leader. Clearly the Midianites did not practise circumcision. And they may well have seen any attempt by Moses to practise it as rebellion against the tribe. They probably had their own tribal marks. Indeed it is clear that Moses' wife viewed the whole matter as repugnant. She may well have seen it, with its requirement of the cutting of the fleah, as resulting in a physical defect, and as an abomination (one danger of an unequal yoke). This would explain why God did not just command Moses to carry out the circumcision. He was aware that it would cause great dissension between Moses and his wife, who was a Midianite 'princess'. Thus God acted in a way that would override the wife's revulsion and her clear objections. It is noteworthy that the passage is about firstborns. Israel was to be set free because it was God's firstborn. If he did not free them Pharaoh would lose his firstborn. Now God deals with the one who is probably Moses' firstborn. But he is not of the covenant people. He is like Pharaoh's son. He does not bear the covenant sign. If Moses is to deliver God's firstborn he must circumcise his son making him one of the covenant people, one of God's firstborn. How can Moses deliver the covenant people when he is not being faithful to the covenant? We must not take too literally that God 'sought to kill him'. Had God wanted him dead there would have been no 'seeking' about it. What it probably indicates is that some mortal disease struck Moses, or a deadly snake bite. Zipporah in some way knows why it is and reluctantly and with great abhorrence circumcises her son. She then throws the bloodstained foreskin at Moses feet, expressing her disgust. Obedience having been achieved we are left to assume that Moses recovered through the shedding of blood. Best wishes |
||||||
2 | chpt 5 v 24 why did God threaten to kill | Ex 4:24 | sola Scriptura | 229772 | ||
"The obvious answer is" Not without scriptural support. Please refer to TOU. |
||||||
3 | chpt 5 v 24 why did God threaten to kill | Ex 4:24 | biblicalman | 229788 | ||
I am baffled by your response. The verses themselves are scriptural support. The connecting of them by me with covenant circumcision and the shedding of blood relates to two important continuing elements of Scripture. That is why I said the answer was basically obvious. You cannot surely expect Scriptural support for the incident itself. It is unique, apart possibly from when God wrestled with Jacob. But there was no 'attempt to kill' there. Are you then saying that no one should try to explain it? I notice from past threads that no one has satisfactorily dealt with the matter. Surely if you consider my attempt unsatisfactory you should give us your own attempt? It is surely not good to leave questioners in the air about the matter. best wishes |
||||||
4 | chpt 5 v 24 why did God threaten to kill | Ex 4:24 | stjohn | 229789 | ||
There will be no debate. Please, again, refer to TOU. | ||||||