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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | EX 32:14 THE LORD REPENTING? | Ex 32:14 | DANNYP | 150240 | ||
I WAS WONDERING WHAT EX. 32 :14 MEANT? I READ THE WHOLE CHAPTER AND IT JUST SEEMED LIKE MOSES WAS TELLING THE LORD THAT HE NEEDED TO REPENT. BUT TO REPENT WE MUST FIRST SIN. ANY THOUGHTS ON THE MEANING OF IT? |
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2 | EX 32:14 THE LORD REPENTING? | Ex 32:14 | Morant61 | 150241 | ||
Greetings DannyP! The easiest way to understand the word 'repentance' in relationship to God is to see it as a 'change of mind or purpose' as viewed from a human perspective. Numbers 23:19 makes it clear that God does not 'repent' or change His mind. However, there are times when it appears that He has changed His mind from our perspective. There are times when God pronounces a conditional judgement. Jer. 18:8-10 is an example of where a nation can receive either judgement or mercy depending upon their actions. This 'option' is viewed as a 'repentance' or a 'relenting' on the part of God from our perspective, but of course He knew all along what our choice would be in that situation. :-) So, to answer your question, the word 'repentance' in relationship to God (in the OT) does not have the same meaning as 'repentance' in the NT. It does not have reference to sin with God, but with an apparent change of purpose or action. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | EX 32:14 THE LORD REPENTING? | Ex 32:14 | DANNYP | 150243 | ||
thanks, it somewhat helped. but it still seems like the writer is trying to say the He was going to do an evil thing. twards the end of the verse. we know that even thinking of doing something bad is a sin. it looks like it is implying that The Lord was thinking of doing something wrong and thus being a sin needed to repent. To me that is not the perfect Christ that I worship why would he write that? |
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4 | EX 32:14 THE LORD REPENTING? | Ex 32:14 | DocTrinsograce | 150245 | ||
Dear Danny, Note this verse in the NASB: "So the LORD changed His mind about the harm which He said He would do to His people." And in the NKJV: "So the LORD relented from the harm which He said He would do to His people." God often speaks to us of Himself in human terms. If He did not do so, how would we be able to understand Him? John Gill commented as follows on this verse: "He did not do what he threatened to do, and seemed to have in His thoughts and designs, but did what Moses desired He would, Exo 32:12 not that any of God's thoughts or the determinations of His mind are alterable; for the thoughts of His heart are to all generations; but He changes the outward dispensations of His providence, or His methods of acting with men, which He has been taking or threatened to take; and this being similar to what they do when they repent of anything, who alter their course, hence repentance is ascribed to God, though, properly speaking, it does not belong to Him, see Jer 18:8. Aben Ezra thinks that the above prayer of Moses, which was so prevalent with God, does not stand in its proper place, but should come after Exo 32:31 for, to what purpose, says he, should Moses say to the Israelites, Exo 32:30 'peradventure I shall make an atonement for your sin': if He was appeased by his prayer before?" In Him, Doc |
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