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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How did Moses know he was Jewish? | Ex 2:8 | spriceles2 | 229278 | ||
The show "Mysteries of the Bible" was just on the History Channel talking about Moses. My question is, "How did Moses know that the Jewish people were his people; he was raised by Egyptians?" Thanks, Steve | ||||||
2 | How did Moses know he was Jewish? | Ex 2:8 | biblicalman | 229284 | ||
Strictly speaking Moses was not Jewish. He was an Israelite, or, in Egyptian terminology, a Hebrew. The title the Jews did not come into the reckoning until at least after northern Israel was destroyed, although could of course be applied to the people of Judah. |
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3 | How did Moses know he was Jewish? | Ex 2:8 | Holmes | 229311 | ||
You are correct that Moses was not a Jew as that term is applied in the scriptures. The first use of the term “Jews” in the Bible is found in II Kings 16:6. King Rezin of Syria recaptured Elath from the Jews. King Rezin had waged war against Jerusalem with his ally, King Pekah of Israel! So here you see the Northern Kingdom of Israel at war against the Jews! In the O/T it seems fairly certain that the word “Jews” referred to those Hebrew subjects of the Southern Kingdom of Judea and latter to their descendants, wherever they lived. This would include those who were members of the tribes of Levi and Benjamin who were subjects of Judea. The term “Hebrew” was first applied to Abram in Genesis 14:13 and thereafter to his descendants through Isaac and Jacob. It was not Egyptian terminology. Holmes |
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4 | How did Moses know he was Jewish? | Ex 2:8 | biblicalman | 229320 | ||
Hi Holmes. The term Hebrew was initially used by outsiders of Abraham and his descendants. Genesis 14 was describing a covenant made between Abraham and Melchizedek. This would almost certainly be drawn up by Melchizedek's Chief Scribe. (Note the totally unusual style of chapter 14 in contrasst with the rest of Genesis). Thus he speaks of Abraham as Abraham the Hebrew. Abraham would of course keep a copy of the covenant. Being semi-nomadic and non-Canaanite Abraham's tribe would be seen as similar to the Habiru (Apiru), landless people and without a settled home. It was not used of Isaac or Jacob's family tribes. It was then used by the Egyptians of Joseph in an Egyptian situation, followed by its use by the Egyptians of Israel in Exodus 1-10. It does not then occur until Exodus 21. It occurs in Exodus 21 of a special type of servant in a contract typical of the Habiru, as witnessed at Nuzi (repeated in Deuteronomy). Thus this was dealing with Habiru bondservant contracts. Its next use was by the Philistines of Israel (1 Samuel). Thus its use up to this point was clearly as I said, a use by foreigners of Israel. Saul then took it up as a reaction and taunt against the Philistines. It is not used anywhere in any other contexts. It was next used of Jonah by foreign sailora. By the time of Jeremiah (its final use) Jewish slaves were being described as Habiru, being on typical Habiru contracts. So Hebrew was a title gradually being assimilated to Israel. Best wishes |
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