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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | part b any known reason ,precept? | Ex 23:19 | DocTrinsograce | 180527 | ||
Dear Catio, Welcome to the forum! It appears a third time in Exodus 34:26. There might have been a pagan celebration that involved this practice. I don't believe anyone can say conclusively. Talmudic sources don't explain it either, other than to say that boiling a calf or kid in its mother's milk would be exceptionally cruel. In Him, Doc |
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2 | part b any known reason ,precept? | Ex 23:19 | catjo | 180563 | ||
Hi, Thank you for the welcome, Doc! Please, if you wouldn't mind explaining what Talmudic sources are. I've not been able to find any scripture or, anti cultic references concernig this either. Except, to say in Matt. 25:32, when the goats will be seperated from the lambs. And a few other places that use the goat to puchase land and the lamb to purchase or, free people. It seems to me a precept is being aluded to here. So, without going into a long equation as to how I feel what this might mean to us today. I'll just say, We are to hate the sin but, love the sinner. And, if there is a sinner amongst us we, as Christians are told to act in the personality of Christ. Not in the personality of the accusser (Satan). Now the milk of the captain of our faith is love, forgiveness, kindness, truth, suffice it to say all of Jesus' personality/precepts. But, if we say the goat is Satin then I suppose the milk would be evil. To me this is the same type of thing as; heaping coals on the head of our enimies by doing good to them . Whether this scripture specifically means this or, not. I think I'll choose to cook the young goat in Christ's mercy. Otherwise, it would be like pouring gas on a fire. Kind of like you reap what you sew, in this case... you reap what you throw. His child, Catjo |
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3 | part b any known reason ,precept? | Ex 23:19 | DocTrinsograce | 180567 | ||
Dear Catjo, Oh my goodness... no no no... Let me help to correct your application. Please understand... I want to encourage you with your study, even while I help to correct some habits that will be a problem for you. First of all, remember the following principles for sound exegesis. (May I humbly suggest you work through thread #156916? Print them out, and learn to apply those techniques as you study the word.) 1. A Scripture will never say something that it never originally said. 2. Scripture interprets Scripture. 3. Never render an interpretation that the Bible itself does not authorize. 4. Only come up with application AFTER you've rendered a sound exegesis. By trying to see symbols in everything, you run the risk of moralizing or allegorizing the Word. That is at the root of a great deal of error. Now, looking at the passage in question, we do not have a New Testament teaching that explicitly cites this prohibition. The fact that goats or calves are mentioned, is simply to broad to connect it to these animals elsewhere. Christ would have been more explicit about this if He had intended us to see it this way. Either that, or we would find something in the teaching of the apostles. (For example, see how Paul extends the principle Deuteronomy 25:4 in the passages of his epistles 1 Corinthians 9:9 and 1 Timothy 5:18. This gives us the authority to extend this principle from oxen to pastors. Note that it does not grant us authority to do this elsewhere. If we just do it ourselves, we are on really shaky ground!) So, we might be able to deduce from our passage in question, after some study of history and culture that this was a practice of Baal worship. God wants His people to be different from the peoples around them. They worship God, not Baal. He didn't want them to even look like they were worshiping Baal, so as to make it clear to all who saw them. This principle of separation is repeated throughout Scripture (e.g., Acts 3:19, 2 Corinthians 6:17, 1 Peter 4:4, etc.). That is the only safe application that one can make. You asked for the Talmudic references: Babylonian Talmud chapter 7. See also the Mishnah Sanhedrin folio 4a. Miomonides, a Jewish scholar from the 1100's wrote, "Meat boiled in milk is undoubtedly gross food, and makes overfull; but I think that most probably it is also prohibited because it is somehow connected with idolatry, forming perhaps part of the service or being used on some festival of the heathen. I find a support for this view in the circumstance that the Law mentions the prohibition twice after the commandment given concerning the festivals." Keep studying! :-) In Him, Doc PS I would highly recommend the book "How to Read the Bible for All its Worth" by Gordon Fee and Douglas Stuart (Zondervan, ISBN 0-310-24604-0). |
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