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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | When did "after" change to before? | Joel 2:31 | M.Royal | 187565 | ||
With the understanding that the scriptures used for the rapture refer to the gatherng of the saints on the day of the Lord, at the last trumpet which as it is written takes place after the tribulation and the sun and moon being darkened Matt. 24:29-31. Acts 2:17-20. When did Christs "after" the tribulation change to before or in between the tribulation? |
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2 | When did "after" change to before? | Joel 2:31 | mark d seyler | 187575 | ||
Jesus will send His angels to gather His chosen upon His physical return, after the tribulation of those days. This does not change. But these chosen are the remnant of Israel, as can be demonstrated by the subsequent sheep and goats judgment. The rapture of the called out assembly takes place prior to the wrath of God, prior to the Day of the Lord. A careful comparision between Matt 245:29-31 and Acts 2:17-20 will show that they do not describe the same event. Joel 3 more closely matches the second coming of Christ, with Joel 2 transpiring before that time. To go into greater detail on this, please contact me at markdseyler@yahoo.com. Love in Chirst, Mark |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Joel 2:31 | Author | ||
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Radioman2 | ||
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Radioman2 | ||
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M.Royal | ||
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mark d seyler |