Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does Jeremiah 31:31-34 refer to? | Jer 31:34 | shpagach | 98029 | ||
What does Jeremiah 31:31-34 refer to? As a Christian, I was always taught this was the new convenant we live under (Grace) because Jesus was the ultimate sacrifice and mediator of this covenant. (Hebrews 9:15) I've been discussing faith with a friend who converted to Messianic Judiasm. There are those who put a totally different spin on this, say the "new" covenant was only for Israel and Judah (vs. 31) I don't see it that way. I see that Jesus went to the Jews first, but then open the way for the gentiles through Paul. How do I prove it? Or can I? | ||||||
2 | What does Jeremiah 31:31-34 refer to? | Jer 31:34 | Lastday | 99074 | ||
Hi, The New Covenant for today includes all who believe in Christ whether Jew or Gentile. But the New Covenant of Jeremiah and Heb.8:8-13 and Rom.11:27 applies in a special sense to all of ethnic Israel who survive on the Day of Christ's Epiphany. God will keep His promise to (continue) to bless all the nations through the restoration of Israel during the Millennium. Those who reject the need for and reality of a 1000 year reign of Christ over all nations after He comes in glory use the argument that the New Covenant exclusively refers to the benefits of the Cross for Believers ... but only until Christ comes a second time. Paul clearly states that the Covenant will accrue to Israel when Messiah comes out of Zion and God remembers their sins no more. There is no way that it can be said, prior to the return of Christ, that "all know the Lord." Mel, www.lastday.net or lastday1@cox.net |
||||||