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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | what does Jeremiah 1:5 means? | Jer 1:5 | DUDUTJ | 170002 | ||
I had a conversation with a mormon one of these days and he used this text to prove that we, in the past, lived already with a flesh-and-bones God. Well, I know that this is quite stupid as well as all their beliefs are, but I wanna understand what God wanted to say when he say "before I formed you in the womb I knew you.." I know that hebrew poetry repeats the same ideia with different words, then I understand that, the expression "Before I formed you in the womb I knew.." doesn't mean a pre-existence with God, but that this expression links with the second statement "before you were born", which means, that God saw the embryo and already knew his inclinations, tendencies etc. Is that all right? Can you help me to understand more fully this verse? |
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2 | what does Jeremiah 1:5 means? | Jer 1:5 | mark d seyler | 170004 | ||
Hi DUDUTJ, I would suggest looking in the New Testament, were this idea of God's "foreknowledge" of us is more clearly dealt with. You are right to not think that it means we had previous relationship with God. There are 5 places in the NT where God's foreknowledge of people is talked about: (Acts 2:23) Him, being delivered by the determined purpose and foreknowledge of God, you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death; Since this is referring to the Father's foreknowledge of the Son's sacrifice, this cannot simply be knowing in advance. Coupled with the phase "the determined purpose", we see that this foreknowledge speaks more of God's deciding what He was going to do. (Romans 8:29) For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren. He refers to us as ones God foreknew. (Romans 11:2) God has not cast away His people whom He foreknew. Or do you not know what the Scripture says of Elijah, how he pleads with God against Israel, saying, God refers to Israel as those He foreknew. Compare this with Romans 9:9-13, and it is clear that God did not choose Israel because of anything Israel did, or was. Again, this is not a matter of God simply knowing in advance what Israel would do or be. Deut. 7:7-8 also bears that out. (1 Peter 1:2) elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: The church is chosen in the same way Israel is. (1 Peter 1:20) He indeed was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you. (Foreordained is from the same word.) Again speaking of Jesus, this is perhaps truer to the way the Bible uses this word, "proginosko", which is the same word in each of these passages. The foreknowledge of God is Hes choosing whom He will have relationship with, and choosing how that will come about. So when Jeremiah says that God knew him before he had been made, is to say that God had decided who Jeremiah would be. This would be like you or I deciding to take the car instead of the bike, and later, we would be driving instead of riding, according to our "foreknowledge". This is how I understand the Biblical use of this term. I hope this helps! Love in Christ, Mark |
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