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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | kalos | 178561 | ||
We know what the Bible means by what it says -- not by reading minds or by ignoring the Greek definition of the words being used. If it's true that what the Greek word lust means and what Jesus means are not the same thing, then either Jesus, the Gospel writer, or the translator picked the wrong word, didn't they? How is it that Jesus used a word that did not really mean what he had in mind when he used it? |
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2 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | kalos | 178562 | ||
P.S. If we do not know what Jesus meant by the words he used, then how do we know what he meant? Of course, the answer is that if we can't know what he meant by what he said, then we just can't know. The Word of God is the expression of the thoughts of God. The words of Christ are the expression of the thoughts of Christ. |
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