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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178519 | ||
Mat 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. Hi Mark. What really matters is what did Jesue have in mind when He used the word "Lust", it is clear from Matthew 5:28, above that He ment that state of mind in a man which leads to "Adultery" The question therefore, is not what the Greek word might, or might not mean, but what Jesus intended it to mean. Bless you brother. ebrain. |
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2 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | mark d seyler | 178551 | ||
Hi ebrain, I agree with you that the context has a strong importance in how a word is used, and if we are to understand what the speaker is saying, we have to look both at the words, the grammatical forms, and the context. In the instance of Matt 5:28, we can be crystal clear on this as Jesus was specific that this strong desire was for a woman, and that He was claiming this as adultery, the presupposition is that she is not one's wife. Blessings! Love in Christ, Mark |
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3 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | kalos | 178583 | ||
Mark, I agree with you. Also, if a man could commit adultery in his heart by lusting after his own wife, then in his heart he would would be commiting adultery WITH his own wife. Utter nonsense! Such an interpretation would be not from common sense, but from a lack of it. Grace to you, John |
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