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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178660 | ||
Dear John. You said You're the one who implied that Jesus used a word that did not really mean what He had in mind. I have never at any time as far as I am aware either said, or implied that Jesus used an incorrect word. Such a suggestion would be to insult Him, and rest assured, I have no intention of doing that. What is important here is not so much the Greek translation of what Jesus said, but rather His Teaching, what He wished to convey. It is clear to me that He is saying that from the Divine point of view, thinking about it is just the same as actually doing it. The word translated "Lust", used in this verse indicates what is in a man's mind when he is looking at a woman, Which state of mind God judges as being the same as if the man had in fact commited adultery with her. It makes no difference how you interpret the Greek word used, it's meaning in this passage of Scripture is exactly as I have indicated above. To suggest that Jesus did not use the right word, is an insult to Him. To say that the Holy Spirit translated the word used by Jesus with the wrong Greek word, is to insult the Holy Spirit. If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?. At Matthew 20:20, it is the Mother that asks, whereas at Mark 10:35, it is the Sons that ask. Al four Gospels have different versions of , "the inscription above His head", see Matt27:37. Mark 15:26, Luke 23:38, and John 19:19. Your last line reads. Saying that it doesn't matter what the word means, it only matters what Jesus had in mind doesn't even make any sense. I experience no difficulty in understanding what Jesus is saying (had in mind), in the verse in question, I am sorry that it does not make sense to you. If I can be of nay help, then please ask. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. ebrain. |
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2 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | srbaegon | 178668 | ||
Hello ebrain, The Greek word literally means "strong desire" as has been pointed out to you. It was translated into English as "lust" because that reflects a strong desire for a woman. If the Lord had been talking about food, the translators would probably have used the word "starved" or "famished". You say "If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Spirit...". The NT says it, we don't (2 Tim 3:26). And the reason for the different accounts? Or as you say "Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error?" It's neither. The writers recorded it as it was relayed to them through their investigation. Steve |
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3 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178677 | ||
Hi Steve. I am well aware of the meaning of the Greek word which has been translated "Lust", there was no need for you to repeat it. The verse you want is 16, not 26, and it refers to the autographs, and not to copies, or translations. I have more to say in answer to your post, but later on due to time restraints. The Lord bless you. Edwin. |
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