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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Replenish the earth | Gen 1:28 | Cephas | 8027 | ||
My KJV says that God commanded that man replenish the earth.The same command is given to Noah: see Gen 9:1.Replenish implies that there was something to replenish ie to replace.In the case of the flood that is easily understood,but what about Gen 1:28? What was before man to replenish? | ||||||
2 | Replenish the earth | Gen 1:28 | Hank | 8029 | ||
The problem, Cephas, is not one of theology, because there was nothing for man to replace. It is neither a problem with the King James translation; it is right. The problem is with our tricky English language. The verb "replenish" does not always mean to replace. I cite the Merriam-Webster Collegiate dictionary. The first definition given for "replenish" is this: "To fill with persons or animals." Fill, not refill. An archiac definition, which the 1611 scholars may well have had in mind, is "to supply fully." A second definition of "replenish" is "to fill or build up again" but that is not the definition that is in harmony with the context here, to which modern versions attest by their usage of the simple word "fill." --Hank | ||||||
3 | Replenish the earth | Gen 1:28 | Cephas | 8032 | ||
Thanks Hank. | ||||||
4 | Replenish the earth | Gen 1:28 | RCSCROLL | 8034 | ||
Male, hebrew to fill,accomplish #4390 both gen1:28 and 9:1 both are the same verb. love in CHRIST JESUS, RCSCROLL | ||||||