Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Genesis 3:22 Who is God referring to"us" | Gen 1:26 | karenc | 144341 | ||
In Genesis 3:22 God says the man has become like one of us. Who is the us? Is it him and the serpant? | ||||||
2 | Genesis 3:22 Who is God referring to"us" | Gen 1:26 | DocTrinsograce | 144342 | ||
No, this is one of the first places in scripture where the Triune nature of our God is first revealed. In Him, Doc |
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3 | Genesis 3:22 Who is God referring to"us" | Gen 1:26 | MJH | 144346 | ||
I understand that Gen. 1:26 refers (so it is thought) to the Trinity, but does 3:22 also do this? Or not? | ||||||
4 | Genesis 3:22 Who is God referring to"us" | Gen 1:26 | DocTrinsograce | 144354 | ||
When rational people communicate -- and we may assume that Moses was rational and the Holy Spirit is rational -- they tend to use the same words in the same context the same way. This would be particularly true in a single narrative like we have here in the creation and fall of man. We have two places where God is speaking to Himself and using a plural first-person pronoun. What we say about the first instance must necessarily be true about what we say about the second, and vice versa. Scripture interprets Scripture. Since we know from other places in the Scriptures that all three Persons of the Trinity were involved in creation, and that God does not need the counsel of anything in creation, we may safely infer that the use of this particular pronoun signified the three Persons of the Trinity. In Him, Doc |
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