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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mark, Couldn't of been God.... | Gen 18:2 | prayon | 8944 | ||
How can you misunderstand John 1:18; "No man hath seen God at any time" (KJV), "No one has ever seen God" (NRSV). Exo 33:23 also states tht no man shall see my face. According to Eerdmans Word Studies of the New Testament "The 'seeing' intended here is seeing of the divine essence rather than of the divine person". This can lead us to think that maybe it was His shekinah glory. The Everyman's Bible Commentary says that He has come to man through the one who has always been at the Fathers side. This usually designates Jesus Christ. I am led to believe that who they saw was Jesus Christ. To explain Exo 24:10 - isn't Jesus and God one? How would they of known the difference between Jesus and God? | ||||||
2 | Mark, Couldn't of been God.... | Gen 18:2 | userdoe214 | 8945 | ||
What follows "No man hath seen God at any time"? what does John say next, and most of all what is he saying about Jesus and man's knowledge of God? Your way of explaining Ex.24:10 could almost be taken as saying that Jesus is somehow less than God. "No one has seen God, but they have seen Jesus." And if they were seeing the "divine essence" rather than "divine person" (such language sounds very odd to me) then why after seeing this thing (sorry, but thing is what you say they saw, not a person) does it say "Yet He did not stretch out His hand against the nobles of the sons of Israel" |
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