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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Man before the Bible. | Gen 12:10 | Camus6898 | 234619 | ||
The Eqyptian history is way before the Bible. Where is the Bible in the early years of man? | ||||||
2 | Man before the Bible. | Gen 12:10 | TMcCully | 234620 | ||
There is certainly a record of what happened before the flood of Noah that utterly destroyed the (unnamed) land of Noah and almost all of mankind. See Genesis 1-11. The inspired name for Egypt is pronounced mitsrayim, Strong's Translating Concordance uses reference H4714 for mitsrayim. At BlueLetterBible.org browse to Genesis 12:10 and click the "C" Concordance button to see this. If you then click on the number 4714 in that concordance entry, you will see the first use of "mitsayim" is for the apparent grandson of Noah who apparently founded the nation of the land of Mitsrayim / Egypt. Genesis 12:10 is the first translation of mitsrayim as "Egypt" because that is the land where Abram went to live at that point. Whatever else happened in Egypt before Abram went there is apparently not considered significant in the Scriptures. Remember the Scriptures primarily are meant to teach the character of God, and mere human history is often a distraction from God. Your question may then become one about the number of years between when Mitsrayim went to the land and when Abram went there, which might be detailed in the Egyptian historical records. Be careful about assuming the translated word "son" can be taken literally as a single generation. The Hebrews also used that word for any male heir. This is why Jesus can legitimately be called the "Son of David" even though several generations separated David from Jesus. The same is true of the Hebrew word translated as "father". It means a male ancestor separated by any number of generations. This is why the Pharisees referred to Abraham as their "father" despite the many generations between them. The translated words "son" or "father" are indeed good one-for-one translations of the inspired words. However translated words are NOT inspired words, so human assumptions about what translated words mean may be wrong. Some interpreters assume assume the Scripture about the generations of Hebrews is complete so they can calculate the how many years passed.In your servant's opinion God does not tell us how many years separated Mitsrayim from Abram / Abraham, which may be a distraction from His purposes. |
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3 | Man before the Bible. | Gen 12:10 | BradK | 234629 | ||
Hello TMcCully, Welcome to the Forum. I noticed your user profile. Might I ask a few directed questions of your statements? 1. You said "Genesis One is supposed to teach why God is worthy, but those traditional word translations obscure the lessons which are foundational for understanding who God is.." OK, but how did YOU determine that Genesis One is supposed to teach that God is worthy? How do you know this is what's it's "supposed to teach"? Says who? 2. How did you determine that "...traditional word translations obscure the lessons which are foundational for understanding who God is"? According to who? To which translations do you refer? Using what hermeneutic method? How do your results line up with general Orthodoxy and/or known scholas views? Are you skilled or trained in Hebrew grammer? Strong's Concordance and the BlueLetterBible may indeed be helpful tools, but they don't make you a qualified, credible "expert"! 3. Are you a JW or associated with the Watchtower Organization in any way? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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4 | Man before the Bible. | Gen 12:10 | TMcCully | 234637 | ||
Brad, You have reasons for concern because I say unfamiliar things about God and His words. In Deuteronomy 13 and 18 God requires us to understand for ourselves whether messages about Him are true by examining what a given message teaches about Himself. To do that we must know exactly why God is so worthy, and worship God's words with our whole minds above anything any man teaches. This is what Adam and Eve first failed to do regarding what Eve speaks in Genesis 3, apparently before the serpent did anything. I will respond more fully to your first two questions in my profile for others who may have similar concerns. I am claiming that the first reason God gives for worshiping only Himself is in the first good thing He provides. The first good thing God provides is described as the light when God names it in "God called the light (yom)" Gen 1:5. Daylight is how truth is revealed to mankind and how all life is powered. That makes daylight hope itself. I am advocating that the way God first uses two inspired words is contradicted in every modern translation of Genesis 1:5. About whether I am a JW or connected with Watchtower, you must judge for yourself by what my message is. Do I advocate worship of anything less than God's actual Words? Answering with Truth in Love, Tim Mc |
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5 | Man before the Bible. | Gen 12:10 | BradK | 234638 | ||
Hi Tim, Frankly, that's a great non-answer and beating around the bush if I've ever heard it. Why don't you just be forthright and answer the question? You are or you aren't a JW! Our God is a holy God, and also a God who does not lie (Tit. 1:2). I find most JW's seem to like to skirt around answering who they are and there affiliations. This is not being honest. In short, they're deceptive. So, I will not play this game. I strongly encourage you if you haven't done so already to familiarize yourself with the Terms of Use and About Forum as provided by our gracious host, the Lockman Foundation. You implicitly agree to these terms and conditions when you register. This saves us from wasting needless time in dealing with matters already clearly set forth by Lockman. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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