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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why isn't it a capital His? | Ps 130:8 | sharsmit | 241106 | ||
Are you saying it refers to Israel or the Lord. If the Lord, why isn't it a capital His? | ||||||
2 | Why isn't it a capital His? | Ps 130:8 | Beja | 241107 | ||
Sharsmit, We are speaking about this verse, no? "And he will redeem Israel from all his iniquities." It would be safe to say that the "his iniquities" refers to the iniquities of Israel. In Christ, Beja |
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3 | Why isn't it a capital His? | Ps 130:8 | sharsmit | 241108 | ||
Thanks. It's still isn't clear to me. Is Israel ever referred to as "his" elsewhere? Seems as if I've heard Israel referred to as "her," but I'm not positive. | ||||||
4 | Why isn't it a capital His? | Ps 130:8 | Beja | 241110 | ||
Sharsmit, Absolutely. Israel is a masculine noun, so it is grammatically necessary for it to be a masculine pronoun. Anytime you see Israel referred to in a feminine sense is purely for poetical reasons when she is meant to be portrayed as God's bride or something along that nature. In Christ, Beja |
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5 | Why isn't it a capital His? | Ps 130:8 | sharsmit | 241112 | ||
Thanks so much for the explanation! | ||||||