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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why have J W's changed John 1:1 | John | 35a Ohauiti Rd Tauranga, New Zea | 30424 | ||
Why have the Jehovahs witnesses changed John Chapter One verse one from "In the beginning the Word was and the Word was with God and the Word was God" to "a god"? | ||||||
2 | Why have J W's changed John 1:1 | John | Jesusman | 30425 | ||
Hello, If you were to follow the rules of Greek grammer strictly, then in order for a word to be declared definite, a definite article must be present. If the defininte article isn't present, then the word is to be declared undefinite. Basically, "the" for definite. "a" for undefinite. However that is not always the case, as we shall see here. Now, with that explained, let's look at the text. In the greek, you have three primary phrases in John 1:1. It is the last two phrases which we will focus on. In the first of these two, you have in english, "and the Word was with God,". IN greek, the word for God, specifically the God of the Bible, is "ho Theos". "Ho" being the Definite article, and "Theos" being the word meaning "God". This is basically what is in this phrase. IN the greek, when you are talking about God, Jehovah, you say, "The God." Now look at the remaining phrase of verse 1. In strict a english translation, you have, "and the Word was a god." Now, the J. W. stop there in translation. However, there is a matter of syntax that can, and is applied to this and similar sentances. IN this sentance, you have a verb with two subject nouns. The subject can be either, "God" or "Word". However, greek syntax reveals to us that is this case, the noun with the Definite article is to be placed as the subject, and the other noun is to be placed as the Direct Object, also called the "Predicate Nominative". That is what is taking place here. "Theos" is to be treated in every respect as if it had a Definite Article. However, due to the grammer dealing with this, the article was removed for clarity, so that we may know which noun was to be the subject of the verb. I hope this clears things up. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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3 | Why have J W's changed John 1:1 | John | Hank | 30427 | ||
Jesusman, don't you feel there may be another, simpler explanation -- like an attempt to deny the Deity of Christ, for instance? --Hank | ||||||
4 | Why have J W's changed John 1:1 | John | Jesusman | 30431 | ||
I agree, Hank. They are just trying to deny the deity of Christ. However, in my experience the more technical and thorough explaination usually is what is sought after, which is why I gave the answer I gave. Also, the very core of the issue concerning the J. W. doctrine and our doctrine is whether or not Jesus is God. By merely saying that they are attempting to deny the deity of Christ doesn't solve the problem. However, by going into the matters concerning the Greek text, you solve many of the inherant problems and narrow down the field. J. W.'s are known for using the Greek to support many of their weird doctrines. I'm trying to show how they are incorrectly using the greek. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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5 | Why have J W's changed John 1:1 | John | Hank | 30438 | ||
And, Jesusman, you gave a perfectly fine explanation of it, too. Why, you sound just like a good Baptist to me! You know, some of the cults and other far-outers go to great lengths to clothe their deception in what is designed to look like solid scholarship. And if they can't parade it as scholarship, they at least attempt to make it arcane and mystical so that the gullible will jump at their bait. Well, in any event, we can't say we haven't been warned. The New Testament is far from silent about false teachers. Red flags are abundant. Good post, Jesusman. Grace and peace to you. --Hank | ||||||