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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | from the standpoint of the English? | 1 Chr 4:10 | ekip | 6095 | ||
Thanks for the good information. The issue is much more involved than I thought. I would be interested to know if, from the standpoint of the English translations, you (or others) think the NKJV means something different? It does to me as I read it. I am curious about it since every one seems to be talking about this verse as a result of the Book written on it. | ||||||
2 | from the standpoint of the English? | 1 Chr 4:10 | kalos | 6105 | ||
Ekip: You are correct. If the words in the NKJV are different than the words in other translations, then so also the meaning would be different. The verse in the NKJV means what the words say it means. It is no great mystery to determine the meaning of English words or to compare the words and their meanings from one English translation to another. May I suggest 1) To learn what the English words mean, look them up in a dictionary. 2) What any *translation* -- English or otherwise -- says is secondary. The important thing is: What does it say and what does it mean in the original language in which it was written? The Word of God is infallible only in the original manuscripts in the original languages. |
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Questions and/or Subjects for 1 Chr 4:10 | Author | ||
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Hank | ||
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ekip | ||
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kalos | ||
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ekip | ||
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kalos | ||
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Oomie | ||
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kalos | ||
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buffalo | ||
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ronimac20 | ||
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ivelisse_perez | ||
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mikec | ||
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jabez2006 |