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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is there a difference in meaning? | 1 Chr 4:10 | ekip | 6087 | ||
The last part of the prayer of Jabez from the New King James Version that everyone is quoting reads, "...that I may not cause pain!". The NASB reads, "...that it may not pain me". The KJV, NIV, and Amplified read in a similar way to the NASB. To me these mean different things. I read the NASB as saying; don't let the harm cause pain to me where the NKJV says to me so that I won't do the harm. Is there a difference, translation issue, or am I thinking about it too hard? | ||||||
2 | Is there a difference in meaning? | 1 Chr 4:10 | kalos | 6088 | ||
Ekip: Hebrew is not the easiest language from which to translate. As I understand it, in Hebrew, words are written in all consonants. The meaning of the word depends on which vowels one adds to the consonants. And even then, it is still difficult to be sure of the exact translation of a phrase or sentence. Compare the same verse in the NET Bible and the Amplified. (You said you've already read it in the Amplified. But I include it here for the benefit of the readers.) 1 Chr 4:10 (New English Translation) Jabez called out to the God of Israel, "If only you would greatly bless me and expand my territory! May your hand be with me! Keep me from harm so I might not endure pain!" God answered his prayer. Translators footnote: Heb "and act from [i.e., so as to prevent] harm so that I might not be in pain." New English Translation (http://www.netbible.com) The same verse in part in the Amplified Bible reads: "...and You would keep me from evil so it might not hurt me!" |
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3 | from the standpoint of the English? | 1 Chr 4:10 | ekip | 6095 | ||
Thanks for the good information. The issue is much more involved than I thought. I would be interested to know if, from the standpoint of the English translations, you (or others) think the NKJV means something different? It does to me as I read it. I am curious about it since every one seems to be talking about this verse as a result of the Book written on it. | ||||||
4 | from the standpoint of the English? | 1 Chr 4:10 | kalos | 6105 | ||
Ekip: You are correct. If the words in the NKJV are different than the words in other translations, then so also the meaning would be different. The verse in the NKJV means what the words say it means. It is no great mystery to determine the meaning of English words or to compare the words and their meanings from one English translation to another. May I suggest 1) To learn what the English words mean, look them up in a dictionary. 2) What any *translation* -- English or otherwise -- says is secondary. The important thing is: What does it say and what does it mean in the original language in which it was written? The Word of God is infallible only in the original manuscripts in the original languages. |
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Questions and/or Subjects for 1 Chr 4:10 | Author | ||
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Hank | ||
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ekip | ||
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kalos | ||
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ekip | ||
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kalos | ||
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Oomie | ||
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kalos | ||
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buffalo | ||
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ronimac20 | ||
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ivelisse_perez | ||
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mikec | ||
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jabez2006 |