Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | why was Jabez named sorrow maker | 1 Chr 2:55 | stjohn | 214273 | ||
MJH That would make sense, since ch4 v9 has it, "and his mother named him Jabez saying, "Because I bore him with pain."" I've read somewhere that that is the meaning of the name in Hebrew and Scripture does support it; and, I think, also is only found one other place in Scripture, but I don't remember where or what context. Do you know? Just curious... John |
||||||
2 | why was Jabez named sorrow maker | 1 Chr 2:55 | MJH | 214277 | ||
John, I'm not that well acquainted with this Text, but the word translated "pain" in Chap 4:9 is used three other times in Ps 139:24; Is 14:3; and Is 48:5 and it is translated (in the KJV) as Wicked (or grievous), Sorrow, and Idol respectively. Seems to be a bit of an enigma. MJH |
||||||
3 | why was Jabez named sorrow maker | 1 Chr 2:55 | stjohn | 214278 | ||
I suppose it might be a little mysterious, but the context seems to clear the meaning up pretty well. I guess we shouldn't be too surprised though, that Hebrew has Polysemous words just like most any other language. Thanks for the info bro. John |
||||||