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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | time? | Ecclesiastes | angel1 | 37353 | ||
Eccles.3:15-That which has been is now and that which is to be has already been;and God requires that which is already past. Isn't this compatible with einstein's theory? | ||||||
2 | time? | Ecclesiastes | Jesusman | 37354 | ||
Hello, Actually this would be closer to the Jewish views concerning prophecy and future events than Einstein's theory. To the Jews, the events that were prophecied by the Prophets sent by God were viewed as Past actions. Since God never lies, and that these events were told from God that they will happen, the Jews wrote them down in past tense. So, the question wasn't "Will these events take place?", but was "When are they going to take place?". In the Jewish perspective, these events were already completed in God's eyes, so they wrote them down as such. I hope this helps. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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3 | time? | Ecclesiastes | John Reformed | 37362 | ||
Dear Bruce, You wrote: "To the Jews, the events that were prophecied by the Prophets sent by God were viewed as Past actions". Would you please expand upon your statement? I am not familiar with this viewpoint and would be interested to discover just how you arrived at it. Bother John PS I also await your response to my answer of your question to me: "Ok. Paul makes it clear that God does as he chooses. That still doesn't answer the next question. If it is God's spoken desire that all of mankind are to be saved, and that he has the very power and ability to do so, then Why doesn't he do it? What is stopping him from saving all of mankind? |
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4 | time? | Ecclesiastes | Jesusman | 37810 | ||
Hello, In the Hebrew, the verbs are formed in various "stems". These are similar in function to the Greek tenses. In matters of prophecy, a majority of the verbs used are in a past tense with implications in the future. Hebrew doesn't have a future tense like the Greek. They do have one that functions similar to the Greek aorist tense. IN the Aorist, it is past tense most of the time, but under certain circumstances it can carry a future meaning. This is how the Hebrew stem in question functions. I would like to give the name of this stem, but I don't have my hebrew materials handy. I think it's the Pu'al stem, but I'm not certain. I'll look it up. That's the grammerical side. Now, theologically, God has told the prophets that these events will happen at one time or another. With that, and the nature of God that He cannot lie, It is only fitting to place the prophecies in a past tense. In the eyes of God, these events have already happened, as it were. Jesusman |
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5 | time? | Ecclesiastes | John Reformed | 37833 | ||
Thanks Bruce, The first paragraph was a bit over my head, but I think I caught the drift of it. If I understand the second paragraph (the theological side) it means past present and future are all the same to God. He knows what is to take place because it has always been. Whew! God really is soverign. Thanks Again, John |
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6 | time? | Ecclesiastes | Jesusman | 37840 | ||
Hello, Don't worry. It took me a while to grasp it also. When I started to look at it from a perspective similar to God's, then it began to make sense. Jesusman |
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