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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | "bless God" vs. "curse God" translation? | Job | gumnos | 50462 | ||
The Hebrew word "barak" is translated everywhere as "bless" or "praise" (more than 300 times) but in Job, it's translated "curse" (as in Job's wife telling him to "barak" God and get it over with). This got me really confused. Why was it translated this way only in Job? The best I can come up with (and that I've found in commentaries) is that it's some sort of euphemism, but that seems pretty weak to me. The author of Job uses "naqab" (which is regularly translated as "curse" or "blaspheme") elsewhere, so it's a personal choice on the part of the author to use "barak" and an odd choice on the part of the translator to translate it as "curse". Can anybody shed some light on this for me? Thanks | ||||||
2 | "bless God" vs. "curse God" translation? | Job | Morant61 | 50463 | ||
Greetings Gumnos! The best that I can do is to point out that many times in translations, context will determine the meaning of the word. This appears to be the case in Job, 'barak' is used in a negative sense several times which would not make sense if 'barak' were translated as 'bless'. Examples: 1) Job 1:5 - "When a period of feasting had run its course, Job would send and have them purified. Early in the morning he would sacrifice a burnt offering for each of them, thinking, ‘‘Perhaps my children have sinned and cursed God in their hearts.” This was Job’s regular custom." Here 'barak' is connected with sinning in one's heart. How would blessing God be a sin? 2) Job 1:11 - "But stretch out your hand and strike everything he has, and he will surely curse you to your face.”" Here, was Satan saying that Job would respond to his loss by blessing God or cursing God? So, in some contexts, it appears that 'barak' can mean the opposite of bless. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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