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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does the Mosaic Law apply to gentiles? | Leviticus | DocTrinsograce | 156067 | ||
Dear MJH, You often ask this question when people cite any passage from the Mosaic law. At first I thought you were an Antinomian. But after a review of your posts I am not so certain that you necessarily are a member of that camp. However, one thing is certain: Your desire for appropriate dispensational context seems to have led you away from the principles behind which a passage of Scripture has been given. This is a good example. A young lady has asked about the appropriateness of receiving a tattoo. Another forum member cites Leviticus 19:28. You respond asking if the Mosaic law is applicable Christians, more specifically Gentile Christians. (An extra distinction that is, perhaps, telling, but I will not delve into at this time.) A far better question to ask would be, "Why did God include this command in the Law in the first place?" By asking that kind of question, you accomplish two things: (1) You attempt to discern something of the attributes of God, which do not change; (2) You find something out about the nature of men, which is also pretty consistent. God is speaking in Leviticus 19:28 when He says, "Ye shall not make any cuttings in your flesh for the dead, nor print any marks upon you: I am the LORD." You are correct that we must understand the context in which a statement is made. The context here, as you have pointed out, is the so-called Mosaic Law. However, we have ample evidence by the Apostles of applying principles from the Law. (cf 1 Cor 9:9; 1 Tim 5:18) Furthermore, every command of God teaches us something of His nature. Indeed, since Christ was perfect in every respect of the Law, it informs us in other ways as well. Clearly the first principle we can identify in this command is to avoid the practices of pagan and heathen cultures. The Amorites, Carthaginians, and Scythians all practiced some form of body cutting in order to appease their gods when someone died. The printed marks on the body -- Talmudic sources state these are tattoos -- were placed there as markings of the gods that the people served. Have you ever been in a tattoo parlor? I suggest you drop by one and observe what is currently being offered to young people. Look to see if there is any discernable spiritual context there -- I think you'll find it obvious and disturbing. God, on the other hand, is clearly stating that His followers are not in need of being branded or tattooed with His name in order to identify with Him. He is Sovereign Jehovah! In addition, as Albert Barnes puts it, "Any voluntary disfigurement of the person was in itself an outrage upon God’s workmanship." Now, with the root principles in hand, we don't have to be concerned with whether or not the command was a part of the covenant with the nation of Israel. Instead, we find the passage perfectly pertinent to the question posed by this young lady! I commend you in your effort to insure the appropriate application of the Law so that we cannot be accused of being Judiazers, or erroneously think that our salvation rests in compliance to the Law. However, God's Word is eternal. We must glean all that we can from each word, phrase, sentence, or passage. Those principles that we discern still can -- and ought! -- to bind our consciences today. We live by *every* Word of God. In Him, Doc |
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2 | Does the Mosaic Law apply to gentiles? | Leviticus | jlhetrick | 156684 | ||
Hi Doc, What Mark said. Thanks, Jeff |
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