Lockman - Bible questions and answers

Results 41 - 44 of 44		Pages: << < [ 1 2 3 ]
Results from: Notes Author: rabban Ordered by Date
Results		Verse	Author	ID#
41	for what reason can a man divoce his wif	Matt 19:9	rabban	191369
	Forgive me for saying so but you appear to have a very easy attitude towards divorce which is totally contrary to the teaching of Jesus. What is important is that we ask what the Scriptures teach about divorce. I have already dealt with your argument that lust can be a grounds for divorce, which has no genuine Scriptural grounds. But you say, 'It is important to remember that God knows about divorce firsthand. In Jer 3:8, God divorced Israel for her faithlessness (abandonment) and idolatry (infidelity). We can know that God identifies with our suffering because He has experienced divorce. This divorce was necessary because the marriage with Israel was dead from a break of faith. It is in the context of faith that we are to be married, and when that is no longer possible, due to the hardness of someone's heart, (Matthew 19:8) divorce is appropriate.' What you have overlooked is that God specifically says that it was because of their adultery that He was divorcing them. Thus He was underlining Jesus' teaching before the event. I do appreciate the sad situation you have found yourself in (assuming I have read it aright). And your one consolation may be that it is unlikely that your 'husband' will not soon commit adultery. But we do not have a right to take clear teaching and manoeuvre it around on the grounds of modern reasoning. It is important that we ask, what does the Scripture teach? Breach of trust is not a Scriptural grounds for divorce. What we must seek to do is restore that trust. Jesus is basically saying that marriage is binding for better or for worse. Adultery is a grounds for divorce, not because it is a breach of trust, but because it is a deliberate break in the union between a man and a woman as described in Genesis 2.23-24 as Jesus makes clear (Matthew 19.4-6). Otherwise Jesus said 'what man has joined together let no man (or woman) put asunder'. As it happens even abandonment is not said to be a grounds for divorce. Paul in 1 Corinthians 7.14-16 allows for separation, he does not mention divorce or remarriage. It is just that that is often assumed to be inferred by his words. But Jesus tightened the law on marriage and divorce. He not only set aside Hillel's easy approach, but He also demonstrated that Shammai was inconsistent in agreeing that divorce could only be for adultery or impurity (as a theological position) while still not speaking out against divorce. Jesus spoke out against divorce. He said that it was a no, no, except where adultery had broken the bind that bound the man and the woman. Please note that I am not arguing for my position. It is not for me to say who can divorce and when. I am expounding what the Scriptures say. And they are quite clear on the subject. We can ignore what they say, but it is at the risk of displeasing the One Whose word it is. Because of their divorce Jerualem was destroyed and Judah went into exile.
42	forgiveness	Matt 18:1	rabban	191366
	You say that you do not recognise the difference between the two levels of forgiveness, the one where someone has repented, the other where they have not? I would have thought that the difference was huge. Central to the forgiveness that Jesus describes in Luke 17.3-4 (compare Matthew 18.21-35) where a brother or sister has said 'I repent' is that the person is reinstated in the position that he or she was in before they sinned. We are saying with God, 'their sins and iniquities I will remember no more' (Hebrews 8.12 and Parallels). We are to treat them as though they had never sinned. They are a repentant brother or sister. Full trust must be restored. But in the case of the person who has not repented, while I will show full love to them (Matthew 5.42-48)I will not show full trust. I cannot trust someone who is likely to do it again. I am not sure that forgiveness necessarily means foregoing a right to justice. I can forgive and still seek justice. What I cannot do is forgive and seek vengeance. The two are incompatible. 'Vengeance is mine' says the Lord. 'I will repay' (Romans 12.19; Hebrews 10.30).
43	THE APOCALYPSE CODE, Have U read it?	Rom 11:17	rabban	191337
	Surely if we are grafted into Israel as you rightly say, and unbelieving Israel have been cut off then the church is the true and continuing Israel? Large numbers of Galilean Jews had become Christians through Jesus' ministry and would later have been confirmed as such by the Apostles. The ministry of the Apostles went on for twelve years in Jerusalem and was hugely successful. Thus a good percentage of the Jews had become Christian Jews. Paul declares the remainder as cut off from Israel. This resulted in the new Israel founded on the rock of Jesus' Messiahship. As Paul said not all of Israel were truly Israel (Romans 9.6). They had proved it by rejecting Christ. This is confirmed in Ephesians 2.11-22; 1 Peter 2.5, 9; Galatians 3.29; and of course Romans 11.17-18. In accordance with Exodus 12.48 Paul said that the Gentiles who became Christians were to be incorporated into Israel through the circumcision of Christ (Colossians 2.11). It was precisely because the Judaisers saw the converted Gentiles as becoming Christian Jews and thus part of Israel that they demanded that they should be circumcised in the flesh and demanded the circumcision of Titus. Paul's reply was not that the church was not Israel, but that the converted Gentiles could be seen as already circumcised in the circumcision of Christ and therefore as true proselytes to Israel. The whole reason for the argument was precisely that both sides saw the church as being the true continuation of Israel (John 15.1-6) and that was why the question therefore arose as to whether circumcison was demanded in order to fit in with Exodus 12.48. Paul's reply was that although they were becoming a genuine part of the new Israel, which was replacing the old (Matthew 21.43) they did not need to be circumcised, because this was already accomplished in them through the circumcision of Christ (Colossians 2.11). Thus all parties saw the church as being the true Israel, who in Christ had come out of Egypt (Matthew 2.15).
44	What Happened To The Edomites	Mal 1:4	rabban	191238
	The Edomites were overrun by the Nabataeans and fled to Southern Judah. They were forced to become Jews and be circumcised by John Hyrcanus and were thus absorbed into Judaism. Herod was an Edomite Jew, and idumaean.

Result pages: << First < Prev [ 1 2 3 ]

Search for your Bible question and answer here: