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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: waterrose Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Kalos, the differences are not minor. | Ps 104:8 | waterrose | 160628 | ||
Morant61, Tim, Thanks for searching for an answer about this question. I'll look forward to reading what you may find in the resources at your office. Kalos, Thank you for your notes and answers. Sorry that I hurt your feelings. I may write to the Lockman Foundation with this question. I have only recently registered on this forum, so I am interested to read the many postings on it. Thanks for the quotes from the ASV and the two literal translations. They are helpful. Hank, Sorry. |
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2 | Kalos, the differences are not minor. | Ps 104:8 | waterrose | 160599 | ||
Kalos, Now, to the other comment in your last paragraph in relation to my primary question concerning Psa. 104:8 : the difference between the translation in the NAS and those in the KJ and the NIV ARE NOT, "MINOR variations". Your screen name may mean, "honest", but, to put it bluntly, you did NOT honestly, conscientiously, and attentively read my primary question and my explanation of the question to understand it and answer it. To understand it, you need to read it carefully. To answer it with understanding, you need to acknowledge what it says. So, I guess I have to lead you, since you can't read and study it on your own. Look at verses 8 and 9 of Psa. 104 in the NAS, the KJ, and the NIV. NAS 8 "The mountains rose; the valleys sank down to the place which Thou didst establish for them. 9 Thou didst set a boundary that they may not pass over; that they may not return to cover the earth." KJ 8 "They go up by the mountains; they go down by the valleys unto the place which thou hast founded for them. 9 Thou hast set a bound that they may not pass over, that they turn not again to cover the earth." NIV 8 "they flowed over the mountains, they went down into the valleys, to the place you assigned for them. 9 You set a boundary they cannot cross; never again will they cover the earth." Q1: Do you see in verse 8 in the NAS, that the mountains rose up and the valleys sank down? Q2: Do you see in verse 8 in the KJ and NIV, that "they" went up, that is, flowed over, the mountains and went down into the valleys? Q3: Do you see that by the word "they" in verse 8, the KJ and NIV are referring, in context, to the waters of the deep in verses 6-7? Q4: Did the original writer of this Psalm mean that the mountains went up and the valleys went down, as in the NAS, or did he mean that the waters went up and down the mountains and valleys, as in the KJ and NIV? Q5: Do you see that the NAS has changed the subject of this passage (verses 5-9) in verse 8 from the waters of the context to mountains and valleys? Q6: Do you see that in verses 6-7, God covers the earth with deep water over the mountains; that at the sound of His voice the waters flee and hurry away, exposing the mountains; that God's action is with the waters, not the mountains; and that He lowers the waters, not raises the mountains over the waters? Q7: Do you see that the NAS in verse 8 does not agree with the context of verses 6-7? Q8: Do you see that in the NAS the word, "them", at the end of verse 8 refers to the mountains and the valleys that rose and sank at the beginning of the verse? Q9: Do you see that the word, "they", in verse 9 of the NAS, agrees with the word, "them", at the end of verse 8, and therefore refers to the mountains and valleys, the subject that the NAS changed to in verse 8? Q10: Do you see that by changing the subject in verse 8, the NAS has changed the meaning of verse 9 by saying that, "they", the mountains and valleys of verse 8, "may not return to cover the earth"? Q11: Do you see that that wording in the NAS implies or teaches that mountains and valleys should not be covering the earth today or ever again? Q12: Do you see that that implication or teaching does not make sense and does not agree with the context? Q13: Do you see that in the KJ and NIV, the word, "them", at the end of verse 8 refers to the waters of the deep in the context of verses 6-7? Q14: Do you see that the word, "they", in verse 9 of the KJ and NIV, agrees with the word, "them", at the end of verse 8, and therefore refers to the waters of the deep in the context of verses 6-7? Q15: Do you see that by keeping the subject of the context, the waters, in verse 8, the KJ and NIV make the meaning of verse 9 clear when it says, "never again will they cover the earth"?Q16: Do you see that the wording of the KJ and NIV agrees with the context of verse 6, which says that God covered the mountains of the earth with the waters of the deep and the context in verses 8-9 where He says He will never "again" cover the mountains of the earth with the waters of the deep? Q17: Do you see, then, that the translation of the KJ and NIV agree with the context of this passage, but the translation of the NAS does not? The difference in translation is not "minor". It concerns:1, the correct understanding of the passage by the reader; 2, agreement with the context; 3, the change of the meaning of a verse; 4, and the support of a doctrine that is wrong, that is, the mountains and valleys we have on earth today were made, they "rose" and "sank down", when the earth was covered with water. Kalos, you wrote in your profile that you, "believe in the plenary inspiration and inerrancy of the Scriptures", but so far, your light treatment of my primary question does not reflect that belief. Please carefully read the above and tell me if you agree with those questions. Dennis |
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3 | Doesn't answer my Q1, Q2, Q3. | Ps 104:8 | waterrose | 160596 | ||
Kalos, To one of your comments in your last paragraph: the NASB and KJV are not translated from Greek texts, and specifically the Psalms, which my primary question is about. Now, I'll give you the benefit of the doubt and think that you were just typing real fast and made a human error. I assume that you know that the OT is translated from the Hebrew and Aramaic texts and that it is the NT that is translated from the Greek texts. Unless you meant that the OT of the NASB and KJV are translated from the Septuagint, which is the Greek translation of the OT. But they are not. Only parts of the OT are compared with the Septuagint and may be in the footnotes of a Bible. But, I don't believe that you meant that either. I quickly went to netbible.com, which you refer to in your profile, and saw that it said about that translation, "biblical scholars who are working directly from the best currently available Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek texts". So, I assume that you knew that. So, with the understanding that that was just a mistake, that is a "minor" issue. I will put that issue aside. Dennis |
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4 | Doesn't answer my Q1, Q2, Q3. | Ps 104:8 | waterrose | 160396 | ||
Thanks for the reference to The MacArthur Study Bible. What translation is that in? But that does not answer my Q1, Q2, Q3. Will someone from the Lockman Foundation answer these questions? Dennis |
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5 | Why is Psalm 104:8 different in KJ, NIV? | Ps 104:8 | waterrose | 160363 | ||
Why was Psalm 104:8, in the NAS, translated differently than the KJ and the NIV? I have noticed a substantial difference between the NAS, the KJ and the NIV in the translation of Ps 104:8. From the context of the passage of verses 5 - 9, the NAS translation does not make sense. I'll explain. In verse 6, they all agree that the waters of the deep, cover the earth above the mountains. In verse 7, at the sound of God's voice, the waters fled away. In verse 8, the KJ and NIV, say that "they", the waters, flowed up over the mountains and down into the valleys into the places that God assigned for them. But the difference is that, here, the NAS says that the mountains themselves rose up and the valleys sank down to the place that God established for "them". In this verse, the NAS has changed the subject of this passage from the waters to the mountains and the valleys. When that change of subjects is continued in verse 9, God sets the boundary that "they", the mountains and valleys, may not pass over, and "they", "may not return to cover the earth." What, we're not supposed to have mountains and valleys covering the earth? But when the subject of waters is continued in verse 9, in the KJ and NIV, God sets the boundary of the waters (the deep of verse 6) and "they" will never again cover over the mountains of the earth (of verses 6 and 8). The KJ and the NIV agree with the context, the NAS does not. Q.1 Why is verse 8 in the NAS translated differently than in the KJ and NIV? Q.2 Did the translators of the NAS use a different manuscript? Now, I really don't want to discuss the interpretation of this passage because I believe a correct translation should come first. But it does present another question. Q.3 Did the NAS's translators' interpretation of this passage influence their translation of verse 8? (I ask this because the Sunday school class I'm in is reading a book which says, this, ". . . could be the origin of the present mountains after the biblical flood." That is, verse 8, "the mountains rose". But, on the other hand, I have the Ryrie Study Bible edition of the NAS and he notes on verse 6, "Not a reference to the Flood of Noah's time, but to the third day of God's creative activity (Gen. 1:9-10)." ) Thanks, Dennis |
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