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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: revbray Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Question not answered yet | John 12:41 | revbray | 64824 | ||
Hey Guys thanks BUT, No one has really answered the question I asked at all. It is a grammar question. Pronouns have antecedents, so we can understand who they are speaking about. I believe strongly in the diety of Jesus and believe this verse and the context of the entire chapter to show that the Apostle John believed without a shadow of a doubt tha Jesus, the man he spent 3.5 years with was also YHWH in the Old Testament. But my question has to do with the pronouns in the context of this chapter and no one has addressed that yet. It is a very focusd question Any help would be great. Peace and God Bless. John |
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2 | TRINITY | Bible general Archive 1 | revbray | 64594 | ||
Hello Friend. The word Trinity is not in the bible. But many words we use as Believers are not in the Bible either. Pentacostal, Oneness, Bible and others for example. A definition is simple. There is one God. The bible speaks of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Each is said to be God yet each is not to be confused with the others. One God, Father, Son, and Spirit are GOD but not each other. Hope that helps. |
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3 | Pronouns in John 12:41. Are they Jesus | John 12:41 | revbray | 64591 | ||
In John 12 the entire context seems to be about Jesus. Christian exegetes throughout the ages have said that the pronouns in verse 41, he saw "His" glory, and he spoke of "Him", refer to Jesus. My question is this, Is that true? Do we go along with the flow because this or that man says this is what it means or is there a reason that any body seeking truth should be able to see by simply reading the verse and understanding the context? Is it a grammatical reason? Any answers would be great. | ||||||