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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: psalm9_1 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What are dispensations? | Not Specified | psalm9_1 | 113883 | ||
What are dispensations? | ||||||
2 | What are dispensations? | Col 2:14 | psalm9_1 | 113886 | ||
What are dispensations? | ||||||
3 | Deborah's authority vs. Paul's teaching? | Judg 4:6 | psalm9_1 | 113793 | ||
Thank you, Rowdy. That definately gives me some food for thought and a good spring board for further study. I appreciate your quick response! | ||||||
4 | Deborah's authority vs. Paul's teaching? | Judg 4:6 | psalm9_1 | 113783 | ||
Does the fact that Deborah "summoned" Barak mean that she had authority over him? Is that a contradiction with Paul's teaching in 1 Timothy 2:11-12? ("I do not permit a woman to teach or hold authority over a man.") | ||||||
5 | In the name? vs In the Titles? | Acts 2:38 | psalm9_1 | 113630 | ||
I have spent an incredible amount of time examining this divisive topic. I am truly in love with Jesus, and I love His Word. I believe that this is a well-researched answer to your question: Peter was not a liar for baptizing “in the name of Jesus.” One must understand, however, what the original command means. In the Gospels, Jesus commanded that the disciples do many things “in His name.” He told them to accept Children in His name (Matthew 18:5 / Mark 9:37 / Luke 9:48), to gather in His name (Matthew 18:20), to perform miracles in His name (Mark 9:39), and to petition the Father in His name (John 14:13-14, 26 / John 15:16 / John 16:23-26). Jesus told his disciples that anyone who brought them a cold glass of water in His name would not lose his or her reward (Mark 9:41). Jesus also warned that many false prophets would come in His name (Mark 24:25 / Mark 13:6 / Luke 21:8). That leads us to the question, “what does it mean to do something ‘in the name’ of Jesus?” If you are stating that someone must have the phrase “in the name of Jesus” spoken over him or her when he or she is baptized for the baptism to be legitimately pleasing to the Lord, then it seems that you are relying on a formula of vocabulary. If that is the case, then think of the implications for the above mentioned verses. When a small child comes to me for care, do I have to say, “I am accepting you in the name of Jesus” for that action to be pleasing to the Jesus? If I reach out my hand and lay them on a blind man’s eyes and ask the Lord to heal Him, do I have to verbally communicate to the man, “I am doing this in the name of Jesus?” When I ask the Lord for something in keeping with His will, must I end my prayer with the formula, “in the name of Jesus?” When I come together at my church to worship Jesus, must my pastor speak these words aloud, “we come together here in the name of Jesus?” The Greek wording of “in the name” in Acts 2:38 is epi ho onoma. Literally translated, it means “upon the authority or character.” That makes much more sense when you consider the previously stated verses. I accept children upon the character of Jesus. I perform miracles upon the authority of Jesus. I make requests of the Father on the authority and character of Jesus. When I come together with a group of Believers, I do so, again, on the authority and character of Jesus. If I do these things and do not vocally tack on the phrase “in the name of Jesus,” my actions are still pleasing to Him. Another key phrase in Acts 2:38 is “for forgiveness of your sins.” Peter commanded that they be baptized “in the name of Jesus for the forgiveness of [their] sins.” The Greek phrase is: eis aphesis ho hamartia. The word that seems to cause confusion is the word “for” in the phrase “for the forgiveness of your sins.” The word eis, in this phrase, signifies an action in the past. For example, I could say: Bob is wanted for murder. That sentence could have two meanings. It could mean that Bob is wanted so that he can go commit murder. The other meaning is that Bob is wanted because he committed murder. The latter is correct when the word “for” is used in the past tense. Consequently, one should be baptized because he or she has repented and been forgiven of their sins. The repentance brings forgiveness, not the act of baptism. To say otherwise is to undermine the entire principal of grace. The Bible was written in Hebrew, Greek, and some Aramaic. It does not matter what “in the name” means in our culture or vocabulary. The Greek wording means “upon the authority or character.” When Peter commanded people in the book of Acts to be baptized “in the name of Jesus,” he was telling them to be baptized upon the authority and character of Jesus, to be baptized in the interest of Jesus, for the pleasure of Jesus, because of the command of Jesus, because of the excellency of what Jesus did. (Check out the lexicon at Studylight.org or any other Greek lexicon). He was not stating that the phrase “in the name of Jesus” must be uttered to make the baptism legitimate. Your first question was, “was anyone baptized in any other name?” The answer is no. No one was baptized in any other name besides the name of Jesus. When they were baptized, the disciples might have declared, “I baptize you in the name of Jesus.” They might have stated, “I baptize you in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.” They might have proclaimed, “You are born again because of your faith in the Son of God, Jesus Christ!” We do not know what came out of their mouths when they baptized. We do know however that they were baptized upon the authority and character of Jesus. That is what the Greek command means. This was done in response to repentance and forgiveness. Please consider what I have said and do your own research on the validity of it. I think that you will find that it stands true. God bless! |
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