Results 1 - 20 of 40
|
||||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: parpar Ordered by Date |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 201079 | ||
Dear WOS. Thank you for your post in which you say, "I don’t think God justifies because we have done the right thing in accepting his offer of salvation, but rather by imputing the obedience and satisfaction of Jesus Christ unto us. And this not by anything we do, because it requires faith which is a gift from God to begin with." I am having difficulty in understanding just what it is you are trying to say, as it is impossible to, "accept His offer of salvation", without exercising God's gift of faith.. Which fact I would have thought was obvious, and is the reason why I made no reference to it. Now regarding my understanding of, "Justification", might I with respect refer you to web site, http://satisfiedingod.blogspot.com/2006/06/meaning-of-justified-in-james-221-24_18.html From which is given below a short extract. Introduction Justification before God is no trivial matter; heaven and hell are at stake. The foundation of Christianity has always rested on the biblical truth that “a man is justified by faith apart from works of Law” (Rom. 2:28). The apostle Paul vehemently preached against the notion that anyone could be justified outside faith in Jesus Christ (Rom. 1:18-3:20, 3:28, Gal. 2:21, 3:11). If Paul proclaimed that a person was declared righteous upon their confession of Jesus Christ, how then are we to interpret James’ pericope which seems to blatantly contradict the very statement that Christianity proclaims? The Problem with the Word “Justified” James states, “Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son on the alter? You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” (James 2:21, 24). On the surface, Paul in Romans 3:28 and James in 2:21, 24 seem to create a deep contradiction in their content. However, through research and meditation one can discover that there is reconciliation and harmony between these two passages. First, we need to consider the use of the Greek word “dikaiow.” This word means “to make or declare pure/free/righteous” concerning the moral state of an individual. However, this word can also mean “to vindicate” or to demonstrate the righteous state of an individual.[1] Although the latter is the more prominent usage (especially amongst Pauline writings), the former is also used on a variety of occasions (i.e. Rom. 2:13, Jas. 2: 21, 24).[2] Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
2 | how many times is love used in the bible | Bible general Archive 4 | parpar | 201029 | ||
(love) occurs 311 times in 281 verses in the KJV |
||||||
3 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 201000 | ||
Hi Steve. Sorry for the delay in responding, please accept my apology. All the verses you quote apart from, Deuteronomy 5:9, merely indicate that a son will not be judged for his fathers misdeeds, whereas, Deuteronomy 5:9, appears to contradict this, and that is all that I am saying. My question was, "Can someone please give me advice on how to reconcile the apparent contradiction of these two verses." If my understanding of, Deuteronomy 5:9, is incorrect, then please let me have what you consider to be the correct interpretation of this verse. Thank you. parpar. |
||||||
4 | Who r said to be | Matt 12:49 | parpar | 200946 | ||
Hi rajesh005. Thank you for your question. The answer is given in the verse of Scripture below. Mar 6:3 "Is this not the carpenter, the Son of Mary, and brother of James, Joses, Judas, and Simon? And are not His sisters here with us?" So they were offended at Him. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
5 | fate of Barabbas | NT general | parpar | 200907 | ||
Hi NIGHTMAN. I agree with what others have said in reply to your question, what follows is incidental, but might be of interest to you. NKJV - Mat 27:16 - And at that time they had a notorious prisoner called Barabbas. Footnote: NU-Text reads Jesus Barabbas. Barabbas is an Aramaic expression which means, "We do not know his family name, so we describe him as, son of his father", this word is made up of, "Bar", which means, "son of", and, "abba", which means father. Therefore Pilate had before him two men, one, Jesus the Christ, who had said to the Jews, "you do not know my Father", and the other, a notorious criminal, only known as, Jesus son of his father. Jhn 8:19 Then they said to Him, "Where is Your Father?" Jesus answered, "You know neither Me nor My Father. If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also." Amazing don't you think parpar. |
||||||
6 | Is Deu 25:5, applicable to day? | Deut 25:5 | parpar | 200906 | ||
Are the Lord's instructions, as shown in the verses of Scripture below applicable to day, and if not why not, for God killed Onan, for not doing what the Lord had made clear had to be done? Is the Lord's instruction Deu 25:5 "If brothers dwell together, and one of them dies and has no son, the widow of the dead man shall not be married to a stranger outside the family; her husband's brother shall go in to her, take her as his wife, and perform the duty of a husband's brother to her. Deu 25:6 "And it shall be that the firstborn son which she bears will succeed to the name of his dead brother, that his name may not be blotted out of Israel. Deu 25:7 "But if the man does not want to take his brother's wife, then let his brother's wife go up to the gate to the elders, and say, 'My husband's brother refuses to raise up a name to his brother in Israel; he will not perform the duty of my husband's brother.' Deu 25:8 "Then the elders of his city shall call him and speak to him. But if he stands firm and says, 'I do not want to take her,' Deu 25:9 "then his brother's wife shall come to him in the presence of the elders, remove his sandal from his foot, spit in his face, and answer and say, 'So shall it be done to the man who will not build up his brother's house.' Deu 25:10 "And his name shall be called in Israel, 'The house of him who had his sandal removed.' Gen 38:8 And Judah said to Onan, "Go in to your brother's wife and marry her, and raise up an heir to your brother." Gen 38:9 But Onan knew that the heir would not be his; and it came to pass, when he went in to his brother's wife, that he emitted on the ground, lest he should give an heir to his brother. Gen 38:10 And the thing which he did displeased the LORD; therefore He killed him also. Thank you. parpar. |
||||||
7 | was pharaoh black | Bible general Archive 4 | parpar | 200804 | ||
Hi evol. What is the point of your question, what does it matter what color he was?. If it was important, then I feel sure that Scripture would tell us, as far as I am aware, it does not parpar. |
||||||
8 | when the sons of God lived with ... | Gen 6:4 | parpar | 200660 | ||
Dear John. Here is the continuation of my previous post. Yo said. "By the way, I have to wonder,... if you believe that your explanation calls for, "pure speculation" and, "is in no way to be taken as foundational Christian doctrine". Why would you then adopt it?" The questions asked are of academic interest only, as were the answers I gave. What I had to say will no way affect the salvation of anyone, or their standing before the Lord. No where in Scripture does the Lord say, "Unless you understand what is meant by, the sons of God, or know what the Nephilim are, can you be saved". And that alone is why I described as, "pure speculation", what I said in answer to the two questions that were asked. My understanding of what is meant by, "foundational Christian doctrine", is to be found in such verses as, John 3:16. Rom 10:9. Eph 2:8-9. Gal 2:20, and so on. I hope the above has helped to clarify the situation for you. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
9 | when the sons of God lived with ... | Gen 6:4 | parpar | 200659 | ||
Dear John. Thank you for your welcome, and for drawing my attention to post # 26083, on which I would like to comment as follows. Both "Christianheart", who asked the question, and, "Jesusman" who answered it are both wrong in concluding that there was only one man called, "Lamech". It does not require an in depth examination of Scripture, a mere casual glance at the respective verses in their context, shows that Lamech's father was, "Methuselah", and that Lamech was the father of Noah, see below. Gen 5:25 Methuselah lived one hundred and eighty-seven years, and begot Lamech. Gen 5:26 After he begot Lamech, Methuselah lived seven hundred and eighty-two years, and had sons and daughters. Gen 5:27 So all the days of Methuselah were nine hundred and sixty-nine years; and he died. Gen 5:28 Lamech lived one hundred and eighty-two years, and had a son. Gen 5:29 And he called his name Noah, saying, "This one will comfort us concerning our work and the toil of our hands, because of the ground which the LORD has cursed." Whereas at. Gen 4:17 And Cain knew his wife, and she conceived and bore Enoch. And he built a city, and called the name of the city after the name of his son--Enoch. Gen 4:18 To Enoch was born Irad; and Irad begot Mehujael, and Mehujael begot Methushael, and Methushael begot Lamech. Gen 4:19 Then Lamech took for himself two wives: the name of one was Adah, and the name of the second was Zillah. Gen 4:20 And Adah bore Jabal. He was the father of those who dwell in tents and have livestock. Gen 4:21 His brother's name was Jubal. He was the father of all those who play the harp and flute. Gen 4:22 And as for Zillah, she also bore Tubal-Cain, an instructor of every craftsman in bronze and iron. And the sister of Tubal-Cain was Naamah. We are told that Lamech's father was, "Methushael", and that Lamach was not the father of Noah, therefore there must be at least two different men called Lamech, you will also note that at verse 17 above, Cain was the father of Enoch, who was the third from Adam, if you count Adam as the first, whereas at. Gen 5:19 After he begot Enoch, Jared lived eight hundred years, and had sons and daughters. It was Jared who was the father of Enoch the seventh from Adam not the third, and therefore clearly not the same person. Jesusman who said, or could one say, "speculated", "it is reasonable to assume that both references are about the same person. "clearly did not do his, "homework", and therefore one is inclined to treat whatever else he had to say with some degree of suspicion. To be continued. parpar. |
||||||
10 | when the sons of God lived with ... | Gen 6:4 | parpar | 200607 | ||
Hi rev eugene k mensah. Allow me to give you my understanding of, "sons of God", and, "the Nephilim". I am of the opinion that the, "angels who sinned", referred to below at, 2Pe 2:4, are in fact, "the sons of God", mentioned at Gen 6:2.. My reason for believing that the, "sons of God", are angels is as a result of what is said at Job 1:6-7. 2Pe 2:4 For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but cast them down to hell and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved for judgment; 2Pe 2:5 and did not spare the ancient world, but saved Noah, one of eight people, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood on the world of the ungodly; Gen 6:2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of man were attractive. And they took as their wives any they chose. Job 1:6 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan[fn2] also came among them. Job 1:7 And the LORD said to Satan, "From where do you come?" So Satan answered the LORD and said, "From going to and fro on the earth, and from walking back and forth on it." Now regarding the Nephilim. About some 300 years BC, a translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek known as the, "Septuagint", was commenced, and when the translators looked for a suitable Greek word for Nephilim, they used, "Titan", which means giant, and from which we get the English word, "Titanic". The following is an extract from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Titan_(mythology) "The twelve first-generation Titans were ruled by the youngest, Cronus, who overthrew their father, Uranus ('Sky'), at the urgings of their mother, Gaia ('Earth')." In other words in Greek mythology, the Titans were the product of sex between supposed male, and female gods. For what it is worth, I am well aware that what I have said above is pure speculation on my part, and is in no way to be taken as foundational Christian doctrine, however, I put it forward for your information, and comment. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
11 | the name of G-d? | Judg 11:39 | parpar | 200606 | ||
Dear Azure. Thank you for drawing my attention to my mistake, as you can see, I have taken your advice, and re-directed my post to, "halroy", who, by the way is of the male gender. May the Lord bless you abundantly, and keep you safe. parpar. |
||||||
12 | the name of G-d? | Judg 11:39 | parpar | 200605 | ||
Hi halroy. Thank you for your post, Unfortunatly I sent my note to, "militaryguy", by mistake, below is what was intended for you to read, sorry for my error. I refer to your post, in which you said, "So...if I understand correctly...when I spell God with an 'o'...I am profaning His name? I guess when I actually say it, I am...what? blaspheming? Actually, the way I always understood it, the tetragrammaton of the Jewish scriptures was God's name, which the Jews were very careful with, to the point that we don't really know how the name was pronounced...thus we have Jehovah and Yahweh." And also you said, "So...studybibleforum experts, what name are we to use for God, and are there any we should forbear using?" Although not strictly speaking an answer to your questions, it occurred to me that what follows might just be of interest to you, Jehovah is a nonexistent word, made up of the consonants of one word, and the vowel signs of another word. It is arrived at as follows. At Ex Ch 3 v 14 The Lord our God revealed His most Holy name to Moses, it is the name that is translated in English as "LORD" or "I AM". This name was considered by the Jews to be so Holy that whenever scripture was read aloud in public, it must not be pronounced, but another word was to be used in its place, this word was another title for God namely Adonai meaning Lord. Vowel signs were placed over the Hebrew letters to help pronunciation. what happened was that the vowel signs for YHWH were replaced with the vowel signs for Adonai indicating to the reader that Adonai was to be pronounced in place of YHWH. in medieval times an attempt was made to pronounce the Divine name using the consonants of one word, and the vowel signs of another word, thereby producing a nonexistent meaningless word. The name by which God revealed Himself to Moses at Ex 3:14, means "I have been what I have been, I AM that (or what) I AM, I will be what I will be". This name was also understood by the Jews to mean "The perpetually self reveling all existent one". As far as I am aware Christians are not required to attempt to pronounce the Divine name as revealed to Moses, but to address God as, "Our Father". Further more, Jesus said, Jhn 14:13 "And whatever you ask in My name, that I will do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. Jhn 14:14 "If you ask[fn3] anything in My name, I will do it. Footnote: 14:14 NU-Text adds Me. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
13 | the name of G-d? | Judg 11:39 | parpar | 200591 | ||
Hi militaryguy. I refer to your post, in which you said, "So...if I understand correctly...when I spell God with an 'o'...I am profaning His name? I guess when I actually say it, I am...what? blaspheming? Actually, the way I always understood it, the tetragrammaton of the Jewish scriptures was God's name, which the Jews were very careful with, to the point that we don't really know how the name was pronounced...thus we have Jehovah and Yahweh." And also you said, "So...studybibleforum experts, what name are we to use for God, and are there any we should forbear using?" Although not strictly speaking an answer to your questions, it occurred to me that what follows might just be of interest to you, Jehovah is a nonexistent word, made up of the consonants of one word, and the vowel signs of another word. It is arrived at as follows. At Ex Ch 3 v 14 The Lord our God revealed His most Holy name to Moses, it is the name that is translated in English as "LORD" or "I AM". This name was considered by the Jews to be so Holy that whenever scripture was read aloud in public, it must not be pronounced, but another word was to be used in its place, this word was another title for God namely Adonai meaning Lord. Vowel signs were placed over the Hebrew letters to help pronunciation. what happened was that the vowel signs for YHWH were replaced with the vowel signs for Adonai indicating to the reader that Adonai was to be pronounced in place of YHWH. in medieval times an attempt was made to pronounce the Divine name using the consonants of one word, and the vowel signs of another word, thereby producing a nonexistent meaningless word. The name by which God revealed Himself to Moses at Ex 3:14, means "I have been what I have been, I AM that (or what) I AM, I will be what I will be". This name was also understood by the Jews to mean "The perpetually self reveling all existent one". As far as I am aware Christians are not required to attempt to pronounce the Divine name as revealed to Moses, but to address God as, "Our Father". Further more, Jesus said, Jhn 14:13 "And whatever you ask in My name, that I will do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. Jhn 14:14 "If you ask[fn3] anything in My name, I will do it. Footnote: 14:14 NU-Text adds Me. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
14 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 200564 | ||
Hi Steve. "of those who hate Me", refers to fathers, where as, "but executes My ordinances, and walks in My statutes", refers to sons,, In other words, the two extracts you quote, are not dealing with the same persons, so what is the point you are trying to make? parpar. |
||||||
15 | Okay to question faith and the Bible? | 2 Tim 3:16 | parpar | 200556 | ||
Dear Doc. Thank you very much for your two posts to me on this subject, and also your other two posts to which you drew my attention, I have read all four, and find them most helpful, and informative, in fact I have printed them out for future reference, and to show to others as, and when the occasion arises. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
16 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 200555 | ||
Dear Hopalong. Thank you for your post. My understanding is that, "All have sinned", and therefore, All are, "dead in their sins", just as Peter was in the verse you quote, you need only go forward six verses to verse 23, where Jesus, who only a very short time before had called him, "Blessed", now calls him Satan. Peter was not at this time converted, as is made clear by Jesus at Luk 22:31 ¶ And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired [to have] you, that he may sift [you] as wheat: Luk 22:32 But I have prayed for thee, that thy faith fail not: and when thou art converted, strengthen thy brethren. But Jesus also makes it clear at, Mat 16:18 "And I also say to you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build My church, and the gates of Hades shall not prevail against it. There is no doubt in my mind, that our Lord Jesus Christ is indeed the foundation on which His Church is built, i.e. 1 st Cor Ch 3 v 11, however, I do not think that He was referring to Himself when speaking as recorded at Matthew Ch 16 v 18, but to what had just happened to Peter. I believe He was saying that His Church would consist of individuals, each of whom would have exactly what Peter had just had, i.e. direct Divine intervention into there lives, enabling them to accept Jesus as Savior, see also. Jhn 6:44 "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day. Jhn 6:65 And He said, "Therefore I have said to you that no one can come to Me unless it has been granted to him by My Father." Mat 19:25 When His disciples heard it, they were greatly astonished, saying, "Who then can be saved?" Mat 19:26 But Jesus looked at them and said to them, "With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible." God bless you. parpar. |
||||||
17 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 200554 | ||
Hi Doc. My understanding is that a sinner is ,"justified", in the sense that he has done the right thing in accepting, "God's offer of salvation", and that is all I am saying. Now let me say something about the, "ungodly". All have sinned, and therefore all are ungodly.. I see three types of ungodly persons. 1. Those who say, "There is no God", and are of course fools as, Psalm 14, and Psalm 53, says. 2. Those who say, "There is God, but I hate Him", as Deu 5:9 says. 3. Those ungodly ones who are enabled by God to accept the salvation He offers. If you feel that my interpretation of, "ungodly", is incorrect, then please let me have your understanding of this term. Thank you. parpar. |
||||||
18 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 200531 | ||
Dear Doc. Thank you for your post. The greatest sin of which it is possible to be, "guilty", is that of refusing God's offer of salvation, however, when the, "ungodly", accept God's offer, He then, "justifies", them. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
19 | What did Yeshua notice? | John 1:49 | parpar | 200499 | ||
Hi bigpooch. Thank you for your question. Firstly verse 49, must be considered within the context of verses 45-51, as below. Jhn 1:45 Philip found Nathanael and said to him, "We have found Him of whom Moses in the law, and also the prophets, wrote--Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph." Jhn 1:46 And Nathanael said to him, "Can anything good come out of Nazareth?" Philip said to him, "Come and see." Jhn 1:47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming toward Him, and said of him, "Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom is no deceit!" Jhn 1:48 Nathanael said to Him, "How do You know me?" Jesus answered and said to him, "Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you." Jhn 1:49 Nathanael answered and said to Him, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!" Jhn 1:50 Jesus answered and said to him, "Because I said to you, 'I saw you under the fig tree,' do you believe? You will see greater things than these." Jhn 1:51 And He said to him, "Most assuredly, I say to you, hereafter[fn9] you shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of Man." This is the only time that Yeshua ever referred to anyone as an, "Israelite", or used the word, "deceit", translated, "guile", in the King James Bible. The expression, "under the fig tree", is an Hebraic euphemism for, "out door Bible study", or "out door teaching", as the fig tree has the largest leaves of any tree in that part of the world, and, therefore, under it's leaves was the best place to be for contemplation/meditation of Scripture, if you wished to do so out doors, and at the same time be protected from the sun which can be very hot at certain times of the day in Israel. It is clear that this is where Nathanael was at the time when Philip called him, and that he had been thinking about Jacob who's name means, deceitful 4, deceitfully 3, deceit 2, slothful 2, false 1, guile 1, idle 1, slack 1, but as we know this man had his name changed, see. Gen 32:28 And He said, "Your name shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel;[fn2] for you have struggled with God and with men, and have prevailed." Footnote: 32:28 Literally Prince with God Nathanael was undoubtedly impressed by Yeshua's words, when He said, "Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom is no deceit!", he would no doubt ask himself, "does this man really know that when Philip called me, I was thinking about Jacob?", and, therefore, he asks, "How do You know me?", to which Yeshua replies, "Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you." Is it any wonder that Nathanael then said, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!" Our Lords words in verses 50 - 51, are in fact saying, "Not only do I know that you were thinking about Jacob, but I actually know exactly which passage of Scripture it was you had in mind.. The passage of Scripture we now know as Genesis Ch 28. Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
20 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 200496 | ||
Hi Doc. Thank you for your post. The word of God cannot disagree with itself, it must be my understanding that is at fault, and that is why I am asking for help. At Deu 5:9, God seems to be saying that He will punish the children for the iniquity of the fathers, whereas at, Eze 18:17, God seems to be saying that He will not punish the children for the iniquity of the fathers. I hope that this helps you to resolve my problem. Thank you. parpar. |
||||||
Result pages: [ 1 2 ] Next > Last [2] >> |