Results 1 - 11 of 11
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: biblenovice Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What end results come from Prov. 6:31? | Prov 6:31 | biblenovice | 224339 | ||
Proverbs 6:31 immediately follows Proverbs 6:30. I don't know of any practicing Christians who would demand a sevenfold return from someone who stole food because he (or she) was hungy. That would seem very much out of step with the teachings of Jesus! But what if "the thief" did not steal food, but scammed people out of large amounts of money (such as retirement savings)? What does the KJV Bible mean by "if the thief be found"? Found by whom or by what means? If the thief is not "found" (by humans), does that mean the thieves do not have to repay what they stole, nor the specified multiples thereof? God, being omnicient (sp?) always finds all thieves, rendering the condition "if the thief be found" rather meaningless, wouldn't you agree? Finally, some translations word this Bible verse as "the thief shall restore" (implying it's a done deal, and the thief has no choice in the matter), as opposed to "the thief must restore" (implying the thief has to make his own decision about restoration); "fat chance" if the thief has no remorse about the thefts! Can anyone out there shed some light on this subject, for the benefit of those who were robbed years ago, without any sort of compensation to date? | ||||||
2 | Is every scripture really error-free? | Prov 6:31 | biblenovice | 223348 | ||
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3 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | biblenovice | 223291 | ||
Doc, in response to your question, If you have been saved for 36 years, why still a "biblenovice" the simple answer is the amazing INconsistency of other Christians, and their wide-ranging MIS-interpretation of scriptures and postitons on various situations. I will give you some examples. We are all urged to abandon sin, for instance in John 5:14, and in John 8:11, and Ephesians 4:28 (concerning theft). Jesus Himself was speaking in Mark 10:11-12, concerning adultery. Yet despite His statements, divorce and remarriage to another spouse (while the former spouse is yet still living) runs rampant throughout most Christian denominations! Why is that known blatant sin ignored by clergy and fellow Christians alike? Is there somewhere (ANYWHERE) in scripture that marrying another person AFTER being divorced is ACCEPTABLE, according to ANY Christian bible? Did Jesus' position on that situation ever change, that can be proven through scripture? How is it that, what Jesus labeled as adultery, magically got changed to acceptable behavior among Christians? What does Malachi 3:4 say about adulterers? What does 1 Corinthians 6:9 say about adulterers and homosexuals? And what does Hebrews 13:4 say about adulterers? So, with all the inconsistency practiced all around me, by people who act pious and angelic, while clearly living in sin according to Jesus' own words, yes indeed, I do feel like a biblenovice, even after decades of being a practicing Christian because of widespread demonstrated departure from scriptural doctrine! There is at least one translation in which Mary Magdalene called Peter (yes, the leading Apostle) "my brother," (quoted verbatim here: "Then Mary wept and said to Peter, ‘Peter, my brother, what are you imagining about this? Do you think that I’ve made all this up secretly by myself or that I am telling lies about the Savior?" (end of quote) but can we prove that Peter, the Apostle and mary Magdalene had the same mother and/or father? Yet I was "reprimanded" right on this forum, for referring to scriptures that say to "rubuke" a "brother," (Luke 17:3-4 and Matt. 8:15-17) but NOT a person unrelated to me! Is God supposed to be our source? Read Phil. 4:19! As for those who ridiculed me for buying a 14 year old car, expecting the heater and defroster to work, that was all we could afford at the time, with both my wife and me being unemployed through no faults of our own, and simultaneously being discriminated against because of our ages! | ||||||
4 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | biblenovice | 223290 | ||
Doc, in response to your question, If you have been saved for 36 years, why still a "biblenovice" the simple answer in the amazing INconsistency of other Christians, and their wide-ranging MIS-interpretation of scriptures and postitons on various situations. I will give you some examples. We are all urged to abandon sin, for instance in John 5:14, and in John 8:11, and Ephesians 4:28 (concerning stealing), etc. Jesus Himself was speaking in Mark 10:11-12, concerning adultery. Yet despite those statements, divorce and remarriage to another spouse (while the former spouse is yet still living) run rampant throughout most Christian denominations! Why is that known blatant sin ignored by clergy and fellow Christians alike? Is there somewhere (ANYWHERE) in scripture that marrying another person AFTER being divorced is ACCEPTABLE in any Christian bible? Did Jesus' postion on that situation ever change, that can be proven through scripture? How is it that, what Jesus labeled as adultery, magically got changed to acceptable behavior among Christians? What does Malachi 3:4 say about adulterers? What does 1 Corinthians 6:9 say about adulterers and homosexuals? And what does Hebrews 13:4 say about adulterers? So, with all the inconsistency practiced all around me, by people who act pious and angelic, while clearly living in sin according to Jesus' own words, yes indeed, I do feel like a biblenovice, even after decades of being a practicing Christian! There is at least one translation in which Mary Magdalene called Peter (yes, the leading Apostle) "my brother," but can we prove that those two had the same mother and/or father? Yet I was "reprimanded" for refering to scriptures that say to "rubuke" a "brother," but NOT an unrelated person, right on this forum! Is God supposed to be our source? Read Phil. 4:19! | ||||||
5 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | biblenovice | 223273 | ||
By stating that there are more than two possible answers to the dilemna I presented, you are asserting that the scriptures are in error on the omission side, by leaving out numerous other possible reasons for the same outcome! By making that assertion, aren't you stating that the scriptures are NOT error-free, by reason of omission? How many reasons for NOT receiving what we ASK for were cited in the context of the scripture referenced, which was James 4:3? There was only one reason given, without so much as a hint of any other reasons (such as the phrase "among others"). The very next verse (James 4:4) completely abandons the subject at hand, not even involving "asking or receiving." Notice that there was no mention of "prayers" in either James 4:3, nor in my original question, but only of "asking." If you ask someone to pass the potatoes at the dinner table, are you praying to that person, or just making a simple request? Phillipians 4:19 states that God will supply all our need! Do you think people need heaters or defrosters in the winter? Would YOU do without them, claiming that you did not need them? Try taking your blower fuses out next winter (if you live where it gets really cold) and see how YOU fare in driving under those conditions, especially if you have loved ones in your vehicle with you! Besides, God knows our needs before we ASK. Notice He did NOT say before we PRAY! There really is a difference! | ||||||
6 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | biblenovice | 223272 | ||
By stating that there are more than two possible answers to the dilemna I presented, you are asserting that the scriptures are in error on the omission side, by leaving out numerous other possible reasons for the same outcome! By making that assertion, aren't you stating that the scriptures are NOT error-free, by reason of omission? How many reasons for NOT receiving what we ASK for were cited in the context of the scripture referenced, which was James 4:3? There was only one reason given, without so much as a hint of any other reasons (such as the phrase "among others"). The very next verse (James 4:4) completely abandons the subject at hand, not even involving "asking or receiving." Notice that there was no mention of "prayers" in either James 4:3, nor in my original question, but only of "asking." If you ask someone to pass the potatoes at the dinner table, are you praying to that person, or just making a simple request? Luke 6:38 states that God will supply all our need! Do you think people need heaters or defrosters in the winter? Would YOU do without them, claiming that you did not need them? Try taking your blower fuses out next winter (if you live where it gets really cold) and see how YOU fare in driving under those conditions, especially if you have loved ones in your vehicle with you! Besides, God knows our needs before we ASK. Notice He did NOT say before we PRAY! There really is a difference! | ||||||
7 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | biblenovice | 223262 | ||
Last year, we bought a used car because our minivan's transmission sort of quit working (making the vehicle useless unless we spent a lot of money on transmission repairs). The "new" car seemed to run fine when we bought it last summer. I checked everything I could think of on the car, to get it ready for winter. The heater was so hot it could drive everybody out of the car when we checked it in the summertime. But when winter finally came, and the weather got very cold, the heater hardly blew any warm air at all. The defroster was pretty useless, since it would not even melt INSIDE ice which was basically frozen moisture from people breathing inside the car! I prayed about it because we had to be able to take our son to and from school daily, and it was a safety hazard trying to drive a car with impaired visibility. I even "reminded" God about James 4:3, and that I could not "consume on my lust" adequate heating or defrosting of the windows in our newly acquired 17 year old car (a 1993 model with over 140k miles on it). I asked for adequate heat in that car, but I did not receive what I asked for. Why not? The ONLY reason cited in James 4:3, for asking but NOT receiving, was "... because ye ask amiss, that you may consume it upon your lusts."! Does anyone have any idea why my prayers for adequate heat in that car were not answered, or can anyone describe how I (or any member of my family) could possibly consume adequate heat and a working defroster upon our collective lusts? | ||||||
8 | Is forgiving the unrepentent scriptural? | Not Specified | biblenovice | 223261 | ||
Most evangelists and preachers on radio, TV and the Internet say to "forgive everyone" of every wrong ever perpetrated against you, by anyone and any group (such as a company, an organization, etc.), regardless whether they repented or compensated for their wrongdoings or not! In contrast, Luke 17:3-4 tells us a very different story! In fact, Luke 17:3 COMMANDS us to REBUKE the perpetrator(s), and only extend CONDITIONAL forgiveness to them, IF the perpetrators REPENT of their wrongdoings! When Jesus was dying on the cross, He said, "Father, forgive them for they know not what they do." Was His request granted by the Father, or not? If so, wouldn't that mean that everyone was forgiven of every sin and transgression forevermore, with "no repentence required" at any time? If so, then why would ANYONE ever need the "conversion experience" of being "born again?" In fact, couldn't everybody just get a bible, then begin intentionally violating every law, precept and suggestion in the bible, as many times as possible, and then, upon dying, be welcomed into heaven for all eternity, only because of what Jesus said on the cross? Matthew 18:15 decscribes how a believer is supposed to "confront" an offender about sins or transgressions, and if that person refuses to repent (or acknowledge his or her transgressions), the matter is to be brought before an ever increasing amount of people, putting ever increasing pressure on the offender to repent and make restitution to those harmed. But, in the scenario where UNconditional forgiveness is granted to the UNrepentent, why does Matt 18:15 and related even exist in the bible? In other words, under what circumstances would Matthew 18:15 even apply? Considering the existence of both Luke 17:3-4 and Matt 18:15 and following, it appears that is is totally UNscriptural to forgive the UNrepentent. In closing this question, Matthew 21:12-13 depicts Jesus rebuking those who tried to make a temple into a marketplace. Were those who were put out of the temple wicked people? Jesus Himself referred to them as a "den of thieves", so what do you think? I mentioned this in case somebody wants to refer to a scripture that says one should not rebuke the wicked for any reason. | ||||||
9 | Is forgiving the unrepentent scriptural? | Matthew | biblenovice | 223263 | ||
Most evangelists and preachers on radio, TV and the Internet say to "forgive everyone" of every wrong ever perpetrated against you, by anyone and any group (such as a company, an organization, etc.), regardless whether they repented or compensated for their wrongdoings or not! In contrast, Luke 17:3-4 tells us a very different story! In fact, Luke 17:3 COMMANDS us to REBUKE the perpetrator(s), and only extend CONDITIONAL forgiveness to them, IF the perpetrators REPENT of their wrongdoings! When Jesus was dying on the cross, He said, "Father, forgive them for they know not what they do." Was His request granted by the Father, or not? If so, wouldn't that mean that everyone was forgiven of every sin and transgression forevermore, with "no repentence required" at any time? If so, then why would ANYONE ever need the "conversion experience" of being "born again?" In fact, couldn't everybody just get a bible, then begin intentionally violating every law, precept and suggestion in the bible, as many times as possible, and then, upon dying, be welcomed into heaven for all eternity, only because of what Jesus said on the cross? Matthew 18:15 decscribes how a believer is supposed to "confront" an offender about sins or transgressions, and if that person refuses to repent (or acknowledge his or her transgressions), the matter is to be brought before an ever increasing amount of people, putting ever increasing pressure on the offender to repent and make restitution to those harmed. But, in the scenario where UNconditional forgiveness is granted to the UNrepentent, why does Matt 18:15 and related even exist in the bible? In other words, under what circumstances would Matthew 18:15 even apply? Considering the existence of both Luke 17:3-4 and Matt 18:15 and following, it appears that is is totally UNscriptural to forgive the UNrepentent. In closing this question, Matthew 21:12-13 depicts Jesus rebuking those who tried to make a temple into a marketplace. Were those who were put out of the temple wicked people? Jesus Himself referred to them as a "den of thieves", so what do you think? I mentioned this in case somebody wants to refer to a scripture that says one should not rebuke the wicked for any reason. | ||||||
10 | Is every scripture really error-free? | Not Specified | biblenovice | 223260 | ||
Over many years, I have been the victim of a number of scam artists, who robbed me of many, many thousands of dollars, mostly from retirement savings and severance pay. Proverbs 6:30-31 says (KJV), 30: "Men do not despise a thief, if he steal to satisfy his soul when he is hungry; 31: But if the thief be found, he shall restore sevenfold; he shall give all the substance of his house." Words (in any language) are supposed to have meaning. "He shall restore sevenfold" leaves no option open for any other eventuality! It is a widely held belief that there will be no money in heaven, nor any need for it. So, how long will I have to wait while living on earth, for my sevenfold restoration BEFORE I die, so that I can leave an inheritance for my family? If our US currency becomes "worth LESS" (as it has been doing lately) to the point that it becomes "WORTHLESS", then obviously that would NOT result in me being compensated sevenfold, since money is a "means of exchange," and worthless currency could not be exchanged for anything. Are the quoted scriptures really factual and error-free, in the quoted translation, or not? | ||||||
11 | Is every scripture really error-free? | Prov 6:31 | biblenovice | 223265 | ||
Over many years, I have been the victim of a number of scam artists, who robbed me of many, many thousands of dollars, mostly from retirement savings and severance pay. Proverbs 6:30-31 says (KJV), 30: "Men do not despise a thief, if he steal to satisfy his soul when he is hungry; 31: But if the thief be found, he shall restore sevenfold; he shall give all the substance of his house." Words (in any language) are supposed to have meaning. "He shall restore sevenfold" leaves no option open for any other eventuality! It is a widely held belief that there will be no money in heaven, nor any need for it. So, how long will I have to wait while living on earth, for my sevenfold restoration BEFORE I die, so that I can leave an inheritance for my family? If our US currency becomes "worth LESS" (as it has been doing lately) to the point that it becomes "WORTHLESS", then obviously that would NOT result in me being compensated sevenfold, since money is a "means of exchange," and worthless currency could not be exchanged for anything. Are the quoted scriptures really factual and error-free, in the quoted translation, or not? | ||||||