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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Zimmi Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Ezekiel 28 - comparison of KJV, NIV, YLT | Not Specified | Zimmi | 125140 | ||
Ezekiel 28 (specifically Ezekiel 28:9,16-19) - use of grammatical tenses in comparison of King James Version (KJV), New International Version (NIV), and Young's Literal Translation (YLT) Greetings, While doing some recent research (using site: http://bible.gospelcom.net), I compared Ezekiel 28 as translated in the King James Version (KJV) with the New International Version (NIV) and Young's Literal Translation (YLT). I noticed that specifically in verses 16-19 (of Ezekiel 28), the use of grammatical tenses (i.e., past, present, future) differs from translation to translation. While the KJV relates the consequential punishment of Satan to the future (as prophecy), the NIV relates the fall of Satan and his punishment to the past. The YLT makes use of present tense to actively portray Satan's fall and his consequential punishment. Several questions came to my mind. I would like to ask my two major ones first: * Which translation comes closest to the original document? * Reading each translation separately, one can draw different prophetical conclusions on the use of grammatical tenses. In what ways shall Ezekiel’s prophecy be understood? Hopefully someone can help me with this issue. All the Best, David |
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2 | Ezekiel 28 - comparison of KJV, NIV, YLT | Ezek 28:16 | Zimmi | 125148 | ||
Ezekiel 28 (specifically Ezekiel 28:9,16-19) - use of grammatical tenses in comparison of King James Version (KJV), New International Version (NIV), and Young's Literal Translation (YLT) Greetings, While doing some recent research (using site: http://bible.gospelcom.net), I compared Ezekiel 28 as translated in the King James Version (KJV) with the New International Version (NIV) and Young's Literal Translation (YLT). I noticed that specifically in verses 16-19 (of Ezekiel 28), the use of grammatical tenses (i.e., past, present, future) differs from translation to translation. While the KJV relates the consequential punishment of Satan to the future (as prophecy), the NIV relates the fall of Satan and his punishment to the past. The YLT makes use of present tense to actively portray Satan's fall and his consequential punishment. Several questions came to my mind. I would like to ask my two major ones first: * Which translation comes closest to the original document? * Reading each translation separately, one can draw different prophetical conclusions on the use of grammatical tenses. In what ways shall Ezekiel’s prophecy be understood? Hopefully someone can help me with this issue. All the Best, David |
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