Results 1 - 20 of 54
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: RevC Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Must a woman have long hair | 1 Corinthians | RevC | 51735 | ||
How in the world can you say a woman cutting her hair is an abomination unto God! Where in scripture can you possibly show that this is an abomination? This sounds more like preferance than scripture referance | ||||||
2 | who is Jesus talking about in Matthew 24 | Matt 24:1 | RevC | 6607 | ||
who is Jesus talking about in Matthew 24 | ||||||
3 | Did One Mode Send the Other? | John 6:56 | RevC | 5018 | ||
Tim this is a condensed version I hope it answers your questions. I will be giving the forum a break for a few days. I'll be on vacation. I'll be back May 16 greater than I." These passages are in the Book of John, the New Testament writer who more than any other identified Jesus as God and the Father It is wrong for anyone to suppose this plural usage to mean that Jesus is a separate person in the Godhead from the Father. However, it does indicate a distinction between the deity Father and humanity Son of Jesus Christ. The Son, who is visible, revealed the Father, who is invisible. Thus, Jesus said, "If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also" John 8:19 "The Father hath not left me alone These verses of Scripture use the plural to express a consistent theme: Jesus is not just a man, but He is God also. This explains the dual nature of Jesus and reveals the oneness of God. What happens to Jesus after He ascends back to Heaven? Are there two Gods now? To me Trinitarian seems more like a corporation as opossed to one God.There is only one God, who is the Creator and Father of mankind Malachi 2:10. " human and Divine wills of Christ. The Bible does indicate that Jesus had a human will as well as the divine will. He prayed to the Father, saying, "Not my will, but thine, be done" Luke 22:42. John 6:38 shows the existence of two wills: He came not to do His own will (human will), but to do the Father's will the divine will. That Jesus had a human spirit seems evident when He spoke on the cross, "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit" Luke 23:46. Although it is difficult to distinguish between the divine and human natures of His spirit, some references seemingly focus upon the human aspect. For example Mark 8:12 Luke 2:40 Luke 10:21 John 11:33, John 13:21. John 10:38 Father refers to God Himself - God in all His deity. When we speak of the eternal Spirit of God, we mean God Himself, the Father. God the Father, therefore, is a perfectly acceptable and biblical phrase to use for God Titus 1:4. However, the Bible does not use the term "God the Son" even one time. It is not a correct term because the Son of God refers to the humanity of Jesus Christ. The Bible defines the Son of God as the child born of Mary, not as the eternal Spirit of God Luke 1:35. Son of God may refer solely to the human nature or it may refer to God manifested in flesh - that is, deity in the human nature. Son of God never means the incorporeal Spirit alone, however. We can never use the term "Son" correctly apart from the humanity of Jesus Christ. The terms "Son of God," "Son of man," and "Son" are appropriate and biblical. However, the term "God the Son" is inappropriate because it equates the Son with deity alone, and therefore it is unscriptural. The Son of God is not a separate person in the Godhead, but the physical expression of the one God. The Son is "the image of the invisible God" Colossians 1:13-15and "the express image of His God's person" Hebrews 1:2-3. Just as a signature stamp leaves an exact likeness on paper, or just as a seal leaves an exact impression when pressed in wax, so the Son of God is the exact expression of the Spirit of God in flesh. Man could not see the invisible God, so God made an exact likeness of Himself in flesh, impressed His very nature in flesh, came Himself in flesh, so that man could see and know Him. Many other verses of Scripture reveal that we can only use the term "Son of God" correctly when it includes the humanity of Jesus. For example, the Son was made of a woman Galatians 4:4, the Son was begotten John 3:16, the Son was born Matthew 1:21-23; Luke 1:35, the Son did not know the hour of the Second Coming Mark 13:32 MY TURN not only did the Sonship have a beginning, but it will, in at least one sense, have an ending. This is evident from I Corinthians 15:23-28. In particular, verse 24 says, "Then cometh the end, when he Christ shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father…" Verse 28 says, "And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto that God may be all in all." This verse of Scripture is impossible to explain if one thinks of a "God the Son" who is co-equal and co-eternal with God the Father. But it is easily explained if we realize that "Son of God" refers to a specific role that God temporarily assumed for the purpose of redemption. When the reasons for the Sonship cease to exist, God Jesus will cease acting in His role as Son, and the Sonship will be submerged back into the greatness of God, who will return to His original role as Father, Creator, and Ruler of all. Ephesians 5:27 describes this same scene in different terms. |
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4 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4999 | ||
Joe! I can see your point here and how it can be confusing. While I do not totally discredit the trinitarian view I feel it is limited in trying to fit God into three persons as opposed to fitting Him into three roles. Which I have done a more than ample job explaning. The mute point and one that we have found that we can agree on is there is ONE GOD. I think I am correct in that? Arent I? Nonetheless I will answer your questions and then ask a few of you myself First your addressal of the first 4 points. I think that would be an awful lot of rehash at this point. If you would like I could e mail you all of that information or I could repost my commments they have been quite informative and full of scripture,explanation and so on. To address your last comment- Jesus is the "Son" of God, Yet He is God...Now then that is a little confusing in its self and both are sciptural. God fulfills each role in complete fullness the son,the father and the holy spirit.... which is why Colossians tells us the fullness of the Godhead dwelleth in Him bodily. In other words Jesus was the father, the son and the holy spirit. That is obviously and blatantly scriptural. Thus Jesus has two natures-Spirit and flesh,God and man,Father and Son. So no I do not necessarily believe that His sonship was only human in nature. I do believe in three seperate and distinct roles. Now I'll really put my neck on the chopping block. I also believe that He can fulfill these three roles at the same time. yeesh! scarey huh? However In the book of Isaiah God makes some very strong statements which I believe do not allow for a Trinitarian understanding. In Isaiah 44:6-8 God makes the statement, I am the first and I am the last, And there is NO God BESIDES ME . . . Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. Could scripture be any plainer than this? In verse 24 he states, I, the LORD, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself And spreading out the earth all alone. If language means anything then by Myself" and alone mean that there was no other person present. If God is not claiming that he is absolutely one here, then what stronger language would one suggest to convey this? If we take this to be one of the members of the Trinity speaking here, would it be honest for him to say, "There is no one besides Me? Would he not be forced to admit that there are indeed two other persons in the Godhead? God Bless you Joe. |
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5 | is ten percent the scriptural tithe | Bible general Archive 1 | RevC | 4998 | ||
So is this tithe----which is ten percent---how do you know its scripturally correct to give the standard ten? Thanks for your reply | ||||||
6 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4997 | ||
Thank you so much for the encouragement!!! I have tried hard to follow the word of God without bias. I really thought all that I gave was very scriptural. Perhaps we should be proud of the red dots! Gods word is a two edged sword. It is bound to be controversial. It hurt my feelings a little when I first saw those little red dots. However since this post... I am encouraged again...God Bless you! | ||||||
7 | How much should we give? | Not Specified | RevC | 4950 | ||
Is tithing still a "law" under the new covenant? | ||||||
8 | How much should we give? | Bible general Archive 1 | RevC | 4967 | ||
Is tithing still a "law" under the new covenant? | ||||||
9 | Will you join me? | Acts 2:33 | RevC | 4949 | ||
Charis JVH0212 Hank Let it be known that you responded to postings concerning this issue. That you kept the discussion alive. It would seem to me that your desire is to break fellowship with whomever you disagree with, but only until you describe them as unholy,heretics incapable of having a intelligent thought. In each and every post I gave concise biblically based answers. I made no accusations nor did I describe you in any way that would degrade you or put you down. I am sorry that you have had such a difficult time getting your doctrinal basis to stick. The truth is no matter which side you are on both doctrines have their weak points ...including TRINITY. There are a great many on this site that have maintained a good spirit during this discussion. I feel we have all learned from it. This is the basis of a forum that people express their ideas freely and in a way that is not offensive or crude. I have not been either of those. For you to lamblast my faith, that which has brought me to new life, healed the brokenness and the hurt that I have endured. The same faith which has brought healing to my family joy to my children and love to our home To lamblast that is a crime and a shame. Sometime people are so doctrinal that they became dangerous. I agree you should boycott this discussion. JVH0212 we communicated by e mail briefly, not once did doctrine come up. Only unity..however you choose the path in which you should take........GOD BE WITH YOU with the sincerest of love in the Lord Jesus Christ | ||||||
10 | Modes or Persons? | John 6:56 | RevC | 4942 | ||
Tim take a look at this and give me your opinion! Thanks for your sweet spirit concerning this! God Bless. I Timothy 2:5 puts it, For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. In John 10:30 Jesus said, I and my Father are one. Does that mean unity? Well, I ask if that was all he meant then why did the Jews pick up stones to stone him? v. 31 Jesus asks them why v. 32, and they answered him, because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God v. 33. They understood this as claiming to be God, not claiming to be in accordance with him. So if I and the Father are one means I am God, then he must be God the Father. Some Trinitarians have tried to draw attention to the neuter gender of the word one in this passage (Gk - hen), claiming that this means that they are one in unity. However, this is the same word used in passages such as Eph. 4:4 where it says that there is one Spirit, and no one would argue that this means only one in unity. In Matthew 28:19, Jesus commanded the disciples to baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Yet they routinely baptized only in Jesus' name.Either they were mistaken, or they understood the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost to be Jesus. Surely the apostles didn't disobey their Lord. I could give you scriptures to show that Jesus is indeed God, however Joe!, we already agree on that supposedly but here are a few that show that he is specifically the Father who is the only God, Mal 2:10; I Cor 8:6. 1. Jesus said that He would send the comforter to us John 16:7, but He also said the Father would send the comforter John 14:26. 2. The Father alone can draw men to God John 6:44 , yet Jesus said He would draw all men John 12:32. 3. Jesus will raise up all believers in the last day John 6:40, yet God the Father quickens gives life to the dead and will raise us up Romans 4:17 I Corinthians 6:14. 4. Christ is our sanctifier Ephesians 5:26, yet the Father sanctifies us Jude 1. We can easily understand all of this if we realize that Jesus has a dual nature. He is both Spirit and flesh, God and man, Father and Son. As our Lord said elsewhere, things I have spoken to you in figurative language an hour is coming when I will no longer speak to you in figurative language, but will tell you plainly of the Father John 16:25. Or as Zechariah the prophet said, "And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one" Zech. 14:9. |
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11 | Have I misunderstood your question? | John 6:56 | RevC | 4941 | ||
1. Jesus said that He would send the comforter to us John 16:7, but He also said the Father would send the comforter John 14:26. 2. The Father alone can draw men to God John 6:44 , yet Jesus said He would draw all men John 12:32. 3. Jesus will raise up all believers in the last day John 6:40, yet God the Father quickens gives life to the dead and will raise us up Romans 4:17 I Corinthians 6:14. 4. Christ is our sanctifier Ephesians 5:26, yet the Father sanctifies us Jude 1. We can easily understand all of this if we realize that Jesus has a dual nature. He is both Spirit and flesh, God and man, Father and Son. |
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12 | Have I misunderstood your question? | John 6:56 | RevC | 4938 | ||
Oneness approach to How can God pray and still be God? By definition, God in His omnipotence has no need to pray, and in His oneness has no other to whom He can pray. If the prayers of Jesus prove there are two persons in the Godhead, then one of those persons is subordinate to the other and therefore not fully or truly God. What, then, is the explanation of the prayers of Christ? It can only be that the human nature of Jesus prayed to the eternal Spirit of God. The divine nature did not need help; only the human nature did. As Jesus said at the Garden of Gethsemane, "The spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak" (Matthew 26:41). Hebrews 5:7 makes it clear that Jesus needed to pray only during "the days of his flesh." During the prayer at Gethsemane, the human will submitted itself to the divine will. Through prayer His human nature learned to submit and be obedient to the Spirit of God (Philippians 2:8; Hebrews 5:7-8). This was not a struggle between two divine wills, but a struggle between the human and divine wills in Jesus. As a man Jesus submitted Himself to and received strength from the Spirit of God. Some may object to this explanation, contending that it means Jesus prayed to Himself. However, we must realize that, unlike any other human being, Jesus had two perfect and complete natures - humanity and divinity. What would be absurd or impossible for an ordinary man is not so strange with Jesus. We do not say Jesus prayed to Himself, for that incorrectly implies Jesus had only one nature like ordinary men. Rather, we say the human nature of Jesus prayed. The choice is simple. Either Jesus as God prayed to the Father or Jesus as man prayed to the Father. If the former were true, then we have a form of subordinationism or Arianism in which one person in the Godhead is inferior to, not co-equal with, another person in the Godhead. This contradicts the biblical concept of one God, the full deity of Jesus, and the omnipotence of God. If the second alternative is correct, and we believe that it is, then no distinction of persons in the Godhead exists. The only distinction is between humanity and divinity, not between God and God. |
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13 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4936 | ||
please see my earlier posts concerning issue. Much of what you have addressed is more opinion than fact | ||||||
14 | Can Modes Interact with One Another? | John 6:56 | RevC | 4935 | ||
Tim thanks for your post it is very informative. I have been arguing with several concerning oneness/trinity issue ...please address the following if you get timeI would like to look at a passage in Revelation 21, which clearly indicates that Jesus is the Father. Starting at verse 5 it reads And He who sits on the throne said, Behold, I am making all things new we are made new by being in Christ 2 Cor. 5:17 And He said, Write, for these words are faithful and true in Rev. 3:14 and 19:11 Jesus is called faithful and true 6 Then He said to me, It is done. compare to John 19:30, "it is finished I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. [In the very next chapter Jesus says this same thing, 22:13-16 I will give to the one who thirsts from the spring of the water of life without cost Jesus gives the water of life, John 4:10-14; Rev. 7:17. 7 He who overcomes Jesus spoke these words seven times to each of the seven churches in the beginning of this epistle, 2:7,11,17,26;3:5,12,21 will inherit these things, and I will be his God and he will be My son emphasis added. Everything in this passage points towards Jesus as the speaker, yet at the end of the passage we realize that it is God the Father. |
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15 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4918 | ||
Oneness Answers to trinitarian questions. Joe! here yet is another entry supplying you with all you asked for. My entries are lengthy,full of proof,scripture and explanation. Yours are full of judgement,false claims and opinion. Yet I love you.. please read and respond.. By the way you are my brother in Christ regardless of where you place my standing in God's kingdom. Also I had to reduce this because it was to long I can send more when your done. When Jesus spoke of the Father it was always in a way that distanced his identity from that of Father God. This was in keeping with his character of not appearing as God, although he was. Concerning this subject Jesus made the following promise These things have I spoken unto you in proverb: but the time cometh, when I shall not more speak unto you in proverbs, but I shall shew you plainly of the Father John 16:25. Paul referred to this same event of revelation when he wrote unto Timothy, Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and the Lord of lords Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen 1 Timothy 6:15-16. But that still leaves the question Why does the New Testament make a distinction at times? The answer to this goes back to the dual nature of Jesus. In the capacity of being fully man, He was distinct from God. Not just distinct from the Father but from being God also. This is why we can see references to the God of Jesus Christ Matt. 27:46; John 20:17; Eph. 1:17. This is obviously not the God of God. It is the God of a man. Jesus is called a man over and over Acts 2:22; 13:38; I Tim 2:5. As a man, there were things He did not know Mark 13:32, there were things He could not do Mark 6:5, He could only be in one place at one time John 16:7, He could be tempted Heb 4:15, He could thirst John 19:28, and He could die John 19:33. So from this point of view He was distinct from God, and could be spoken of that way. But from another point of view He was fully God and could be called such John 20:28; I Tim 3:16; I John 5:20. When we see a separate reference it is something like: "God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ." What you never see is: "God the Father and God the Son." As I Timothy 2:5 puts it, For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. In John 10:30 Jesus said, I and my Father are one. Does that mean unity? Well, I ask if that was all he meant then why did the Jews pick up stones to stone him? v. 31 Jesus asks them why v. 32, and they answered him, because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God v. 33. They understood this as claiming to be God, not claiming to be in accordance with him. So if I and the Father are one means I am God, then he must be God the Father. Some Trinitarians have tried to draw attention to the neuter gender of the word one in this passage (Gk - hen), claiming that this means that they are one in unity. However, this is the same word used in passages such as Eph. 4:4 where it says that there is one Spirit, and no one would argue that this means only one in unity. In Matthew 28:19, Jesus commanded the disciples to baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Yet they routinely baptized only in Jesus' name.Either they were mistaken, or they understood the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost to be Jesus. Surely the apostles didn't disobey their Lord. I could give you scriptures to show that Jesus is indeed God, however Joe!, we already agree on that supposedly but here are a few that show that he is specifically the Father who is the only God, Mal 2:10; I Cor 8:6. 1. Jesus said that He would send the comforter to us John 16:7, but He also said the Father would send the comforter John 14:26. 2. The Father alone can draw men to God John 6:44 , yet Jesus said He would draw all men John 12:32. 3. Jesus will raise up all believers in the last day John 6:40, yet God the Father quickens gives life to the dead and will raise us up Romans 4:17 I Corinthians 6:14. 4. Christ is our sanctifier Ephesians 5:26, yet the Father sanctifies us Jude 1. We can easily understand all of this if we realize that Jesus has a dual nature. He is both Spirit and flesh, God and man, Father and Son. As our Lord said elsewhere, things I have spoken to you in figurative language an hour is coming when I will no longer speak to you in figurative language, but will tell you plainly of the Father John 16:25. Or as Zechariah the prophet said, "And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one" Zech. 14:9 |
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16 | Jesus name baptism fulflls matt 28 | Matt 28:19 | RevC | 4916 | ||
Joe! The judge or heresies! God bless you joe. You are much more tolerable after a good nights sleep, which I had last night. I am at work on your previous request.... it should follow shortly...however please back off of the heresy thing you are looking like a man ona witch hunt! The fact is regarding Jesus name baptism you are in over your head. The word of God gives time after time in the book of Acts the way the first church considered christian ...true christian baptism to be administered. Lets face it scripture is just not on your side in this issue! You can manipulate it anyway you want it ....however any solid student of the bible who lets God's word and His Word only decide how they live their life...sees Jesus name baptism.....So no mater what Hank Hannagraf or Gregory Boyd says any thing other than JESUS name baptism is a contradiction of the bible | ||||||
17 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4859 | ||
The doctrine of the trinity was the attempt to defend three Biblical teachings all at the same time: monotheism; the divinity of the Father, Son, and Spirit; and the Scriptural distinctions between the Father, Son, and Spirit. The doctrine developed over a period of over 200 years and continued to be refined for hundreds of years after. Its development was an attempt to understand the nature of God in terms of Greek philosophical concepts, Every man will always come short and develop deficiencies in his theology. Understanding this, we need to watch ourselves lest we elevate a certain creedal statement, a certain author’s explanation, or our own understanding of God to the place of untouchable orthodoxy. Just as the doctrine of the trinity developed over time, and the individual’s theologies developed over time, so too our understanding of God develops over time.There is only one God. This is the emphatic teaching of the Old Testament. The Jews were the people who knew their God if anyone did John 4:22, and they had no concept of persons within the Godhead. In the book of Isaiah God makes some very strong statements which I believe do not allow for a Trinitarian understanding. In Isaiah 44:6-8 God makes the statement, I am the first and I am the last, And there is no God besides Me . . . Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. Could scripture be any plainer than this? In verse 24 he states, I, the LORD, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself And spreading out the earth all alone. If language means anything then by Myself" and alone mean that there was no other person present. If God is not claiming that he is absolutely one here, then what stronger language would one suggest to convey this? Why would God be so emphatic about oneness, if in reality he were three persons? Would not these statements be misleading? In the next chapter he states, I am the LORD, and there is no other; Besides Me there is no God. I will gird you, though you have not known MeThat men may know from the rising to the setting of the sun That there is no one besides Me. I am the LORD, and there is no other, The One forming light and creating darkness, Causing well-being and creating calamity; I am the LORD who does all these Isa. 45:5-7. Once again, if God were really three persons, could he use such emphatic language as this? If we take this to be one of the members of the Trinity speaking here, would it be honest for him to say, "There is no one besides Me? Would he not be forced to admit that there are indeed two other persons in the Godhead? In 46:9 God says, Remember the former things long past, For I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is no one like Me. In this statement, there is one person speaking (notice the singular pronouns) and that singular person says that there is no one like him. I do not see how it is possible to see a Trinity in these passages we have looked at. Surely the coming of Christ did not in any way compromise this strict Monotheism taught in the Old Testament. There is only one God. That God is our father. If Jesus is that God then Jesus is our father. As to his deity, Jesus Christ is God the Father. Isaiah 9:6 clearly calls him the Father. Some have argued that this should be translated "Father of Eternity," but not one major translation translates it that way However, even if we adopt the translation "Father of Eternity" does that diminish the force? Jesus is called the Father. I Corinthians 8:6 tells us that, to us there is but one God, the Father. There is no God outside of the Father. So in the sense that Jesus is that God, then Jesus is the Father. Malachi 2:10 asks the question Have we not all one Father? hath not one God created us?So we all have one Father, and our Father is God. The reason we call God our Father is because he created us. John 1:3, Colossians 1:16 and Hebrews 1:2 tell us that all things were created by Jesus, thereby making him our Father. | ||||||
18 | JOE THROWS ONENESS INTO HERESY | Bible general Archive 1 | RevC | 4847 | ||
The hostility on this issus is getting heated... it seems to happen that way when doctrines start to crumble.Let me say I am new to this forum and apologize for multiple postings. If I am not welcome in the conversation lets not beat around the bush.Just ask me to shut up and move on. Contention is not something that I enjoy. Not one of you wonderful trinitarians has provided a shre of evidence for your view. I have not seen what was posted this weekend. I will do so shortly. Thank you for your responses however if you wish to criticize me personally I would request that you keep it to yourself.... I have not personally critcized yor knowledge or you as a person and would ask for the same respect. Please review my responses 5. Although I know there have been many newer versions and better translations since the KJV, many of which I own I have taken a personal stance against omitting verses based on these supposed new finding...so in the idea of "fair play" I'll retract position #5 based on translational discrepancies and we'll move on..of course I'll ask that you retract the whole "salt" thing. 7. I will assume that the lack of here in this answer is due to lack of explanation in your own doctrinal stance 8. At this point my answer would have to be "no"...do you? If so explain it to me 9. Dumb answer I am not going to waste much time on this one 15. I would look forward to this 23. Again Joe, this is poor it is obvious in Revelation that there is one God in heaven and that is Jesus Christ.... the whole time John has his revelation we never get to see the other two guys that Trinitarians say exist...... What's the deal with that? 42. No offense but I am not impressed with Gregory Boyd...most of what I have read form him has been really poor in scriptural points and has relied mostly on personal feeling and his own revelations......regardless of our trinity or oneness viewpoint ..I am sure we can agree that Boyd's work is really not that convincing.... I have gained more from your views than his I feel you have refuted nothing in a logical, concise or biblical manner...every point is tainted with verbal muck and no biblical basis at least I have lead to undeniable scriptures that our not easy for a Trinitarian to refute. This at one time was a non-issue for me until I started seeing some qoutes by hank hannagraf like " how can Jesus be the creator if he was not born until 2000 years ago".... or things like "Do we really want a non-Trinitarian to be the spiritual leader of our country?" Buckner wrote. This Hannagraf cronie is mad about the success of TD Jakes T.D. Jakes is a cult leader and his ministry is a cult," Buckner told "Charisma" magazine. This is just ridiculous. I am not hung up on roles,entities,modes or persons....there is one GOD.. HE came as Jesus Christ the son. There is no doubt that JESUS WAS GOD... this is your stance also.....so where do we differ just what is it that you see that I do not? God There is only one God (Deuteronomy 6:4). He is the creator of heaven and earth, and of all living beings. He has revealed Himself to humanity as the Father (Creator), in the son (Savior), and as the Holy Ghost (indwelling Spirit). Father God is a Spirit (John 4:24). He is the Eternal One, the Creator of all things, and the Father of all humanity by creation. He is the First and the Last, and beside Him there is no God (Isaiah 44:6). There was no God formed before Him; neither shall be there any after Him (Isaiah 43:10). Son Jesus is the Son of God according to the flesh (Romans 1:3) and the very God Himself according to the Spirit (Matthew 1:23). Jesus is the Christ (Matthew 16:16); the creator of all things (Colossians 1:16-17); God with us (Matthew 1:23); God made flesh (John 1:1-14); God manifested in the flesh (I Timothy 3:16);He which was, which is, and which is to come, the Almighty (Revelation 1:8);the mighty God, everlasting Father, and Prince of peace (Isaiah 9:6). Jesus Himself testified of His identity as God when He said, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (John 14:7-11) and "I and my Father are one" (John 10:30). It took shedding of blood for the remission of the sins of the world (Hebrews 9:22), but God the Father was a Spirit and had no blood to shed. Thus He prepared a body of flesh and blood (Hebrews 10:5)and came to earth as a man in order to save us, for in Isaiah 43:11 He said, "Beside me there is no Savior." When He came in flesh the angels sang, "For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Savior, which is Christ the Lord" (Luke 2:11). Holy Ghost The Holy Ghost is not a third person in the Godhead, but rather the Spirit of God (the Creator), the Spirit of the resurrected Christ. The Holy Ghost comes to dwell in the hearts and lives of everyone who believes and obeys the gospel, as the comforter, Sustainer, and keeper (John 14:16-26; Romans 8:9-11). |
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19 | JOE THROWS ONENESS INTO HERESY | Bible general Archive 1 | RevC | 4840 | ||
Perhaps the confusion comes because you have not made a single valid point regarding your current doctrinal view......when you start making points that a legitimate then I'll listen | ||||||
20 | JOE THROWS ONENESS INTO HERESY | Bible general Archive 1 | RevC | 4693 | ||
Joe you have done such a wonderful job of throwing oneness people into heresy lets see how you do with the following questions! 1. Is the word trinity in the Bible? No. 2. Does the Bible say that there are three persons in the Godhead? No. 3. Does the Bible speak of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost? Yes. 4. Do these titles as used in Matthew 28:19 mean that there are three separate and distinct persons in the Godhead? No, they refer to three offices, roles, or relationship to humanity. 5. Does the Bible use the word three in reference to God? Only one verse in the entire Bible does so-I John 5:7. It speaks of the Father, the Word (instead of Son), and the Holy Ghost, and it concludes by saying, "These three are one." 6. Does the Bible use the word one in reference to God? Yes, many times. For example, see Zechariah 14:9; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 23:9; Mark 12:29, 32; John 8:41; 10:30; Romans 3:30; I Corinthians 8:4; Galatians 3:20; I Timothy 2:5; James 2:19. 7. Can the mystery of the Godhead be understood? Yes. Romans 1:20; Colossians 2:9; I Timothy 3:16. 8. Has the Christian only one Heavenly Father? Yes. Matthew 23:9. 9. Then why did Jesus say to Philip, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (John 14:9)? Because Jesus is the express image of God's person. Hebrews 1:3. The Greek word for personin this verse literally means "substance." 10. Does the Bible say that there are two persons in the Godhead? No. 11. Does the Bible say that all the Godhead is revealed in one person? Yes, in Jesus Christ. II Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:19; 2:9; Hebrews 1:3. 12. Is the mystery of the Deity hidden from some people? Yes. Luke 10:21-22. 13. Who is the Father? The Father is the one God, particularly as revealed in parental relationship to humanity. Deuteronomy 32:6; Malachi 2:10. 14. Where was God the Father while Jesus was on earth? The Father was in Christ. John 14:10; II Corinthians 5:19. He was also in heaven, for God is omnipresent. 15. Did the prophet Isaiah say that Jesus would be the Father? Yes. Isaiah 9:6; 63:16. 16. When God said, "Let us make man in our image" (Genesis 1:26), was He speaking to another person in the Godhead? No. Isaiah 44:24; Malachi 2:10. 17. How many of God's qualities were in Christ? All. Colossians 2:9. 18. How may we see the God who sent Jesus into the world? By seeing Jesus. John 12:44-45; 14:9. 19. Does the Bible say that Jesus is the Almighty? Yes. Revelation 1:8 20. Whom do some designate as the first person in the trinity? God the Father. 21. Whom do some designate as the last person in the trinity? The Holy Ghost. But Jesus said that He was the first and last. Revelation 1:17-18 22. How many persons did John see sitting on the throne in heaven? One. Revelation 4:2. 23. If Jesus is the first and the last, why did God say in Isaiah 44:6 that He was the first and the last? Because Jesus is the God of the Old Testament incarnate. 24. Did Jesus tell Satan that God alone should be worshipped? Yes. Matthew 4:10 25. Does the devil believe in more than one God? No. James 2:19. 26. Does the Bible say that God, who is the Word, was made flesh? Yes John 1:1, 14. 27. For what purpose was God manifested in the flesh? To save sinners. Hebrews 2:9, 14. 28. Was Jesus God manifested in the flesh? Yes. I Timothy 3:16. 29. Could Jesus have been on earth and in heaven at the same time? Yes. John 3:13. 30. Does the Bible say that there is but one Lord? Yes. Isaiah 45:18; Ephesians 4:5. 31. Does the Bible say that Christ is the Lord? Yes. Luke 2:11. 32. Does the Bible say that the Lord is God? Yes. I kings 18:39; Zechariah 14:5; Acts 2:39; Revelation 19:1. |
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