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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Lanny Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can you lose your salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Lanny | 42327 | ||
Hi Kalos, If we don't trust Jesus, we have no faith. If we have no faith, we have no grace. If we have no grace we cannot live a sin free life. In other words if we can't trust Jesus for the grace we need to live a sin free life it is only because we choose not to turn away from sin (repent) not because He cannot provide the grace we need in order to live a sin free life. And if we are sinning, we are not saved, regardless of what most religions teach today. Jesus certainly does not teach this. Most only want to confess their sins and go on about their buisness, however the key to salvation is to repent. We need to look this word up and see if we really did our part before we profess salvation. Two things for sure, we can loose something we have, but we can't loose something that we never had. And if we know that we have it, we'll know when we loose it, however this feeling may only last for a short time(reprobate). In Christ, Lanny |
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2 | what are justifys divorce? | 2 Corinthians | Lanny | 41982 | ||
I believe that Jesus put his final disapproval on divorce in the second sentence of verse 6 in St. Matthew chapter 19 and it reads," What therefore God hath joined together, let no man put asunder." In Christ, Lanny |
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3 | Be Holy! | 1 Pet 1:15 | Lanny | 33735 | ||
Hi Tim, According to 1 Peter 1:21 would you agree that if one is following Christ's steps and example, that one must be living a sin free life in order to live a Holy life according to his example explained in verse 22? I looked up the word Holy in the dictionary and it read: Spiritually whole or sound; of unimpaired innocence and virtue; free from sinful affections; pure in heart; godly; pious; irreproachable; guiltless; acceptable to God. In Christ, Lanny |
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4 | assurance of salvation | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28584 | ||
Hi Steve, Only one final thought. Are we giving it our best shot? In Christ, Lanny |
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5 | assurance of salvation | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28566 | ||
Hi Steve, No, your questions and perspectives are always welcome. I agree that all have sinned. And yes just about all of the apostles writings are directed at the churches or so called religious groups. The writings were of so that it was if nobody was saved. As far as 1Jn 1:8-10 is concerned I believe that this also implies to people before they are saved. With verse 10 meaning that if we say that we had no sin prior to accepting Christ as our Savior we would make him a liar because the word of God says that all have sinned. 1 John 1-2, "write I unto you, that ye sin not. And "if" any man sin." Why if instead of when if all men are still sinning? Jesus died for all of us and is the propitiation, " the reconciling factor" for our sins. If we hold verses 8-10 to a certain standard can we hold the same standards in verses 3-4 the same way in chapter 2? And I think that verse 6 is very clear when he said that, "He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, "even as he walked." If you actually believe that it is our goal, why don't you believe that you can obtain it. Are you giving more credit to satan than to Christ? Are you conceding that satan can lead us into sin but Christ can't deliver us out? Can He only help us to go so far? Not the Christ that I know. St Jn 8:32. "And you shall know the truth, and the truth shall set you free." Why would Jesus tell the man in St Jn 5:14 and the woman in 8:11 to sin no more if he thought that there was no way for them to do it. Would you command your children to do something that you knew they couldn't do? Lk 15:7, Jesus here was giving a recap of the preceeding parable. Study this verse closely. Heb 12:14 is another good verse and there are many others that are clear. I will wrap up by mentioning Jude 4 "ungodly men, turning the grace of God into lasciviousness", meaning, a license to sin and making a mockery out of the grace of God. May God Bless You In Christ, Lanny |
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6 | assurance of salvation | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28436 | ||
Hi Steve, Just a quick note about Ro 7:14-24. I believe that if Paul was actually speaking of himself here that he was speaking about his life prior to hearing the blessed words: Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? It seems that most want to stop reading there in order to justify sinning, but we really can't if we keep on reading. But regardless of how we may look upon Paul's life after he was saved, or anyone else's for that matter, we have but one true example and there is no cotroversy there. And he said that I am the way, the truth, and "the life". St. Jn 14:6. And the answer to your question is, yes. May God Bless You Always. In Christ, Lanny |
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7 | Does being obedient get us into heaven? | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28414 | ||
You may infer. In Christ, Lanny |
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8 | assurance of salvation | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28408 | ||
Hi Steve, Yes, I am saying that living a life free from sin is God's will and is very much dependent on our admission to heaven. I know that this is not a popular statement in this day and age. And I know that it is not God's will that we confess our faith in Jesus and drop dead. With your statement are you implying that you can't live a sinless life or is it that you choose not to? And if you truly believe that you won't make it, are you willing to do what it takes to make it? As far as not knowing anyone who will make it, as I have stated before on this forum not to let that discourage you because the bible says that there won't be many that will make it. Mt 7:14, Lk 13:24, 1 Pt 3:20, Lk 17:26-27. In Christ, Lanny |
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9 | Does being obedient get us into heaven? | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28365 | ||
The question was, "How can we have the assurance that we will go to heaven?" However in regards to your question I will answer by saying, yes, we must have faith supported by works in order to be in God's will. If we say that we have faith but are not willing to obey God, do we really have faith? We cannot say that we are saved and be disobedient to God at the same time. Some may call it works or they may call it whatever they will however, I didn't write the verse. Christ did. In Christ, Lanny |
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10 | Are all Christians going to heaven? | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28301 | ||
If your doing the Will of God you don't need another view. In Christ, Lanny |
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11 | assurance of salvation | Matt 7:21 | Lanny | 28299 | ||
By being obedient to the known will of God. This is a good question and this verse tells us without a doubt that not everyone that claims to be saved are saved. Only those that do the will of the Father shall enter into the kingdom of heaven regardless of what others preach or do. God's will is very clear. And it is his will that we sin no more. In Christ, Lanny |
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12 | When will I speak/pray in tongues? | Acts 2:6 | Lanny | 28018 | ||
Tongues is an intelligible language. No where in the Bible does it state that an unknown tongue is a language that no one understands, including the speaker. All through the Bible tongues stands for language, speach, or that little thing that hangs out of our mouths. The word "unknown" is in 1 Co. 14:2, which is in italics, is supplied by translators. An unknown tongue is only unknown to certain individuals who do not speak that language. Therefore when "unknown tongue" is mentioned it should be read as " foreign language". Why would one attempt to speak a so called different language, that no one understands, when everyone in the room speaks English? Who would this benefit or edify? Verse 14: If a person in a congregetion spoke Spanish more fluently than English, and the rest of the congregation spoke English, it would not be fruitful or of any benefit for anyone else if he were to testify in Spanish because they would not have a understanding of what was said. However, when this same person prays alone it would be very benificial for him to pray in Spanish and he should. If this person only spoke Spanish then another person that knew how to speak Spanish would have to interpret in order for this to be edifying to the rest of the congregation. However, God could give this individual the gift of speaking in English, therefore there would be no need of an interpreter. The same situation would apply if God granted the gift of interpreting Spanish to another person in the congregation. Remember, these gifts from God are not languages that have been studied or learned. Verse 33: For God is not the author of confusion. Modern tongues movements claim that all speak with tongues as evidence of the reception of the baptisum of the Holy Spirit. In chapter 12:29-30 it asks, Are all apostles, are all prophets, are all teachers, are all workers of miracles? Have all the gift of healing? Do all speak with tongues, do all interpret? No is the applied answer. Are all not powers, all have not gifts of cures, and all do not speak different languages. Only three times in the Bible was speaking in tongues used in conjunction with receiving the Holy Spirit and all three times they were with people that spoke different languages "unknown tongues" thus giving a good reason for the gift of speaking in tongues. These were: On the day of Pentecost, at the house of Cornelius, and at Ephesus. By the association of the Holy Ghost and tongues in these three occasions many believe that they go hand in hand. NOT TRUE. John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Ghost from his birth, but there is no mention of him speaking in tongues. Many others in the Bible have been filled with the Holy Ghost with no reference to speaking in tongues. We must believe what is written in the Bible not what may or may not have been ommited. As far as 13:1 goes, I believe it reads, "Though I speak WITH the tongues of men and OF angels". This means which are of languages of men of the earth and with the eloquence of an angel. When God does something, He does it for a reason. It would be of no benefit to say something of no understanding to anyone. James 1:26, "If any man seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man's religion is in vain. Rest assured that one does not have to speak in tongues in order to prove to themselves or anyone else that they have received the Holy Spirit because if this is the case the devil will be glad to help us out. In Christ, Lanny |
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13 | Can one loose their salvation ? | Bible general Archive 1 | Lanny | 27694 | ||
Discipled, Grace should be the very thing that keeps us from sinning. Sure we could push past the very keeping power that God provides but then we would have to ask ourselves, whose eyes do we really desire to see through? And if our desires are not right, it will be easy to outsin something that we truly don't have. God will not continue to provide something that we have no intentions of using. We must ask ourself. What sin is it that we absolutely must do, that the grace of God is not capable of keeping us from doing, if our real desire is to not commit the sin? His grace, Gods grace, not any old grace is sufficient for thee. In Christ, Lanny |
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14 | Can one loose their salvation ? | Bible general Archive 1 | Lanny | 27485 | ||
Here's a few more scriptures to ponder. Heb 6:4-6. Here he is talking about those whom have already experienced salvation and were partakers of the Holy Ghost. Speaking that, "If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance, seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God, afresh, and put him to shame." When he says, "if they", I believe this means that it is surely possible. Also 2 Pet 2: 20-22. Here again the righteous are being spoken of and verse 21 reads: " For it had been better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than, after they have known it, to turn from the holy commandment delivered unto them." Here he speaks of returning to their own vomit. I have known of people to be truly blessed of God and filled with the Holy Spirit and have left this world exactly as this scripture mentions. What about Judas Iscariot? Did he not loose his salvation sitting directly under the Gospel of Jesus? Have we a better teacher? God help us if we truly think that our salvation cannot be lost. I believe that the only way that one could believe this is explained in 2 Pet 3:16. And 17, the following verse, speaks of being lead away and falling "again". In Christ, Lanny |
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15 | Can one loose their salvation ? | Bible general Archive 1 | Lanny | 26988 | ||
Paul surely seems to think so in 1 Corr 9:27 when he says "lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a CASTAWAY." If nobody could loose their salvation why would he be preaching the way that he was, being ever so detailed, about every subject? I keep my body under. Why would he go through all of that? I'm sure that he could have enjoyed the world just like everyone else. In Christ, Lanny |
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16 | Is iT possible to live without sin? | Rom 6:2 | Lanny | 26986 | ||
Hi Joe, Sorry its taken me so long. The only safeguards that we have when reading the Bible are the two witnesses, the word and the spirit which God provides and they must agree. Verse 10 I believe is the verse in question and is a verse that many use to justify sin. However when interpeted by means of common perception this does not agree with the Spirit of Christ at all. Christ did not live his life as an example for us to follow and shed his blood for us in order to continue to live in sin. In verses 7 and 9 it states that if we walk in the light and confess our sins we will be cleansed by the blood of Christ from all sin and unrighteousness. After he cleanses us from all sin, how much is left? And if we are still sinning are we walking in the light that God has provided? A few verses that are very clear are 2:6, 3:3 and 8-9. The most convincing verse to me is St.Johns 14:6 with emphisis in "and THE life". When Paul was preaching he was just about always speaking to people in the church (so called religious people) letting them know that most of them are not living according to the Word of God and that same trend continues today. And Romans 7 is a lengthly study but Paul is trying to address the Jews who might hesitate to embrace the Gospel, showing them that as they rested in the law it was necessary to convince them of their mistake. Paul here is probably speaking of his testimony before he became a beliver, especially when speaking of being carnal minded and in the flesh. This chapter in no way implies that Paul was a sinner after his conversion. And fo Eph 3: 13, Paul is telling them that there is no reason to faint and that his sufferings are honorable to them and their cause and there is no reason to drawback in the day of distress. In verse 14 he simply says that he prays fervently on his knees, for them, to God. Ok if :the devil put us in sin is to strong, how about lead us into sin? Either way you want to phrase it Christ can lead us out of it or deliver us from it. And yes man did sin of his own free will and that is the same reason that man sins today. By that I mean that man refuses to go all the way with God. Most want the best of both lives, to be wordly and religious at the same time. They don't mix and never will. As far as never meeting a sinless person, your not alone and there won't be many. Suporting scriptures Mat 7:13-14, Luke 13:24, and 1 Pet 3:17-20. In Christ, Lanny |
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17 | Lanny, What is your definition of sin? | Rom 6:2 | Lanny | 23737 | ||
Can we say then that Christ lives in us if we are still sinning, when in him no sin was found? Lanny |
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18 | Lanny, What is your definition of sin? | Rom 6:2 | Lanny | 23732 | ||
Deliberate disobedience to the known will of God. | ||||||
19 | Is iT possible to live without sin? | Rom 6:2 | Lanny | 23731 | ||
I was leaning more toward the bigger word. "if" In Christ, Lanny |
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20 | Is iT possible to live without sin? | Rom 6:2 | Lanny | 23634 | ||
I also believe that a life without sin is obtainable in this present life through sanctification. Most of the time when this subject is spoken of, 1 John 8 and 10 are usually brought into the picture. These verses pertain to life prior to salvation and confession of sin. The following verse 2:1 even states, "And if any man sins" meaning that some must have been living sinless lives or else he would have said, "When man sins." In verse 2:6 he states how we should walk, even as he walked. I just cannot believe with all the doctrine and light that we should have today, that if we, with a sincere heart ask God to deliver us from sin and are willing to obey him at all cost, that he would tell us that he cannot help us. The devil put us in sin and to say that God cannot not deliver us out of sin would be a disgrace to The Almighty God. But who's willing to go that far? And who wants to be delivered? The bible says that nothing defiled will enter into heaven and to follow peace with all men, and holiness, without which no man shall see the lord. It doesn't even matter if we know someone or not that does not live free from sin. Most of the world today want to compare themselves with man, a preacher, or someone else that seems to be doing good. We need to look to Christ and not to man. Most men will defend living in sin instead of righteousness and without a doubt be in the majority. Still, that doesn't make sin an option according to the true word of God. Three things that we need to ask ourselves: What sin is it that we must do? And, if we could live a sinlesss life, would we? Are we willing to go that far to obtain holiness, or do we have to much to give up? That's what sanctification is all about, not that we will have to give everything up but are we willing to if God ask. And if we are living in sin it can almost be assured that we will have to give something up. Your heart will know if you are willing and he knows your heart. We cannot have any touchmenots. We have an option and if we really want this it is obtainable and Christ will provide the way. In Christ, Lanny |
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