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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Jubalee Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Further study... other explanations? | Ezek 16:55 | Jubalee | 222671 | ||
Thank you Doc for your quick reply. I'm not very familiar with this doctrine, could you give me the main points in a nutshell? Are there any articles/outlines you could recommend for further study? Can you think of any other possible explanations for this passage? Thank you. |
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2 | Restoration of Sodom? | Ezek 16:55 | Jubalee | 222660 | ||
This prophecy was spoken well after the judgement and destruction of Sodom in Genesis. How is it possible it can be fulfilled? Ezek 16:53 "Nevertheless, I will restore their captivity, the captivity of Sodom and her daughters, the captivity of Samaria and her daughters, and along with them your own captivity, Ezek 16:54 in order that you may bear your humiliation and feel ashamed for all that you have done when you become a consolation to them. Ezek 16:55 "Your sisters, Sodom with her daughters and Samaria with her daughters, will return to their former state, and you with your daughters will also return to your former state. |
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3 | Clarifications re "aion" | Eph 3:9 | Jubalee | 214834 | ||
Thanks to all for your responses and links to study aids. Tim, I understand you are the Greek expert here. Could you clarify a few things for me? -Is there a difference between the modern Greek spoken today and the Greek of the New Testament as far as it making a difference in translation? -You said, “It is easy to see how v. 11 could be translated as 'eternal purpose'.” Coud you explain what you mean? It seems that the translators of the KJV/NAS were inserting their own interpretation into the translations, weren’t they? -In the KJV, the translators have many times rendered “aion” as “eternal” or “forever”. However, as I have been studying this I’ve come to the conclusion that “aion” can only be correctly rendered as: a limited time, an age, and the plural means ages. Am I correct in this? Thanks for your help. |
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4 | Translation of the Greek word "aion" | Eph 3:9 | Jubalee | 214807 | ||
Hello, I've been studying the ages of time and am hoping there are some Greek experts here that can help me out. I'm looking at how the Greek word "aion" is translated and there seems to be some major conflict among the various translations I'm using. Example: Ephesians 3:8-11 KJV 8 Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ; 9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the BEGINNING OF THE WORLD hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: 10 To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God, 11 According to the ETERNAL purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord: Ephesians 3:8-11 NASB 8 To me, the very least of all saints, this grace was given, to preach to the Gentiles the unfathomable riches of Christ, 9 and to bring to light what is the administration of the mystery which for AGES has been hidden in God who created all things; 10 so that the manifold wisdom of God might now be made known through the church to the rulers and the authorities in the heavenly places. 11This was in accordance with the ETERNAL purpose which He carried out in Christ Jesus our Lord, The same Greek word is translated three different ways, each of which means something entirely different. beginning of the world ages eternal From my understanding, Young’s Literal Translation gives the clearest rendering. Ephesians 3:8-11 And to cause all to see what is the fellowship of the secret that has been hid FROM THE AGES in God, who the all things did create by Jesus Christ, that there might be made known now to the principalities and authorities in the heavenly places, through the assembly, the manifold wisdom of God, according to A PURPOSE OF THE AGES, which He made in Christ Jesus our Lord. Can someone explain why the KJV and NASB translators would have translated “aion” as “beginning of the world” and “eternal” in this passage? Also are there any free online or software tools such as a good Hebrew/Greek dictionary that would be helpful to me? Thanks. |
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