Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Jimna Ordered by Date |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | the meaning of the rebellion | 2 Thess 2:1 | Jimna | 154468 | ||
Thanks for your reply! Verse 1 states the subject -- with regard to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, So do we agree that the subject is the return of Christ and our gathering back to Him? The next verse continues the sentence as indicated by the comma at the end of the first verse Verse 2 that you not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit or a message or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. This equates the gathering back to Christ as the Day of the Lord. Yes? Verse 3 continues expanding on Paul's effort to explain the Gathering Back to Christ on the Day of the Lord. Clearly stated is that the apostasy must come first, then the man of lawlessness is revealed. So whatever the word apostasy might mean in this context, it comes before the man of sin is revealed, which comes before Christ returns and gathers us back to Him. Paul says in short, First the apostasy (falling away), then the abomination of desolation, then the gathering back (rapture if you like). I understand what you are saying though that this then would allow us to know the day and the hour of His return contrary to the Gospel. This might be resolved by "but for the sake of His elect that time will be forshortened" leaving us knowing the season, but not the day or the hour. |
||||||
2 | the meaning of the rebellion | 2 Thess 2:1 | Jimna | 154446 | ||
The subject here is the second coming of Christ, the "Gathering back to Christ" responding to those telling the Christian community that the second coming had already come! He makes it pretty clear that it had not come and will not do so until some other events transpire. He says that the "Day of the Lord" will NOT come until satan set himself up as God in Temple of Jerusalum calling himself God, claiming to be God! Something to watch out for. | ||||||
3 | Is Jesus the 'Eternal Father'? | Is 9:6 | Jimna | 154445 | ||
Jesus calls the Father "God" in a number of instances in the NT so their is a clear hierarchy in the Trinity. Coequal must then mean that Jesus is given the full power and authority of God on Earth as stated in Dan 7. Also, He is BRANCH in Zech. Is the BRANCH of the tree the tree? I would have to say yes. He came from the bosom of God in John 1, He is the Word, the first of many. He is Elohym which is plural and translated in the OT as God. There is One Elohym . Also, He always does the will of the Father. This unity of will is oneness. There is a great deal of scripture on this perhaps the bottom line is that He reveals the Father and the Father reveals the Son to whomsoever He chooses. The only gripe I have really with the accepted Trinity doctrine is that it obscures the clear hierarchy in the Elohym or Godhead. Bottom line is that Jesus calls the Father "God" as follows in Rev. 3. It's also in the Gospels. 12He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he shall go out no more. I will write on him the name of My God and the name of the city of My God, the New Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God. And I will write on him My new name. This after Jesus clearly identifies himself as the alpha and omega in Chap 1 and has the appearance of the Father as he is described in Dan 7 - The Ancient of Days --. The best I can offer here is that there is a family resemblence! |
||||||