Results 1 - 20 of 109
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Chris Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Unmarried men pastors? | 1 Timothy | Chris | 59513 | ||
Melanie, No, unfortunately I never got anything on the last question. Sorry GOD bless!! chris |
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2 | Tim, more help please?? | Gen 2:1 | Chris | 58669 | ||
Tim, As a witness to two sets of new grandparents I can tell you that you will just get younger when that little baby is born!! GOD bless!! chris |
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3 | Hi JesusFreak | 1 Cor 14:34 | Chris | 58667 | ||
JesusFreak, One important observation needs be made, Jesus didn't write any of the Bible! The apostles or their aids guided by the Holy Spirit wrote the Bible. If your suggesting that Paul didn't have the Holy Spirit's guidance, then how do you know if Matthew, Mark, Luke, or John did? The Bible is the work of the Holy Spirit therefore all of the Bible can be compared to itself and cannot contradict itself. If you think the Bible contradicts itself you need to do more studying, but rather than looking for reasons to disavow part of the Bible you need to look for truths that clarify the Bible. The letters in red have no more prominence than the letters in black, as they were all written by men. An additional note on the Holy Spirit: the Spirit leads in truth, therefore if something is leading you to accept falsehood, namely that the Bible is not inspired or that the Bible contradicts itself, that is NOT the Spirit of the Living GOD. Remember John's warning from the Holy Spirit, "Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits, whether they are of God; because many false prophets have gone out into the world." (I Jn. 4:1, NKJ) And remember that it was through Paul that the Spirit wrote, "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God (GOD-breathed), and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work." (II Tim 3:16-17, NKJ) Remember that the Holy Spirit is GOD therefore He cannot lie or contradict Himself. I apologize for your difficulties due to this post, but you must realize that you're accusing an apostle 'borne along' by the Holy Spirit of discrimination towards women. This is the same man that exclaimed, I count all as rubbish, that I might gain Christ! (memory, sorry if a little off) And, "I am crucified with Christ, it is no longer I who live but Christ lives in me!" (memory, Gal. 2:20) Such a charge is foolish in the mind of a devout Bible student who has studied Paul's life and behavior with women and men, and to take it further the charge is not just against Paul, but against GOD Himself, as the Holy Spirit commissioned the words that you have criticized! But, that doesn't authorize children of GOD to show anger or contempt and I apologize again. Good luck with your other posts, and I'll be praying for you and I'd ask the same from you! :-) GOD bless!! chris |
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4 | Time lapse between Gen 1:1 and Gen 1:3. | Gen 1:2 | Chris | 58564 | ||
Makarios, I know this is an old post, so I apologize. But there is some Scripture that supports the Gap theory. The first important point is the difference between the words 'created' and 'made' in the creation account, I'm sure you know the difference between these two. The Gap theory proposes that Gen 1.1 is the creation of the universe and earth, whereas everything after that, up to the creation of man, is a refashioning of sorts. The purpose of the refashioning is that the original creation was judged for something, the usual suggestion is the fall of satan. What is the support? First, look to Isaiah 45:18, "For thus saith Jehovah that created the heavens, the God that formed the earth and made it, that established it and created it not a waste, that formed it to be inhabited: I am Jehovah; and there is none else." (ASV) Notice that both 'created' and 'made' are used in this verse, so there is a recognition of the difference. It says that GOD didn't create the earth 'void' translated here waste, but it is the same hebrew word used in Gen 1:2, 'and the earth was formless and void' (from memory). Now, you may say, as many have, 'but that is not what Isaiah is suggesting.' Well, that's a matter of opinion, but it is most certainly what Isaiah said! So, this is the reason why this theory should be looked into, not to counter act evolutionists and/or geologist. OK, so there might be a reason to question the exact meaning of Gen 1.1-2, but why the suggestion of judgement? I'm glad you asked! :-) The only other times that 'without form and void' are used as conjuctions speak of terrible judgement via the wrath of GOD! Isa. 34:11, "But the cormorant and the bittern shall possess it; the owl also and the raven shall dwell in it: and he shall stretch out on it the line of confusion, and the stones of emptiness." (AKJV; confusion, without form, emptiness, void) Jer. 4.23, "I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was waste and void; and the heavens, and they had no light." (ASV; waste, formless) So, we have reason to believe that the earth was not originially created without form and void, and we have reason to believe that the earth was without form and void due to Divine Judgment, which is a wonderful segway to mention that, as you know, 'was' in Gen 1.2 can be rendered 'became'. In addition to this we have the curious use of the word 'made' throughout the Creation account rather than 'create'. And that brings us to your text; Ex. 20:11, "for in six days Jehovah made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore Jehovah blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it." Notice that this verse uses the word 'made' not 'created', hence GOD refashioned the heavens and the earth in 6 days, the verse says nothing of when He created it. I see no reason to be dogmatic about something as ambiguous as the Creation account, but others do and it is very important to remember that Scripture should never be presented to unfairly favor one side or another. There are parts and interpretations of the Bible that suggest a young earth, but there are parts and interpretations that suggest an old earth too! So, let GOD inform us completely when He deems appropriate. GOD bless!! chris |
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5 | Stae violation of worshhip, what to do? | Bible general Archive 1 | Chris | 58319 | ||
Chebanne, I agree that people should be free to worship how they wish, but where on earth did you learn to interpret your reading? If you think that Hebrews Ch. 4 is about the Saturday Sabbath you have truly missed the boat! We don't need to go into whether Paul wrote Hebrews, but this sabbath issue takes the cake. Is the word sabbath mentioned in Hebrews Ch. 4? Hebrews Ch. 4 is about how the Christian enters into the rest of GOD continually, not on Saturdays, when s/he gives up their work toward salvation and rest in GOD's finished work at calvary. This is the Spiritual representation of the Sabbath and it shows that for the Christian there isn't a one day literial fulfillment of the Sabbath, but rather a continual Spiritual fulfillment. People should have the right to worship when they please, but Hebrews Ch. 4 doesn't support your preference. GOD bless!! chris |
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6 | 4th commandment has been done away? | Ps 111:7 | Chris | 58260 | ||
RFerg, I know your pain my friend! I've been there!!: ) GOD bless!! chris |
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7 | 4th commandment has been done away? | Ps 111:7 | Chris | 58038 | ||
Tim, There in lies the problems, is lying always wrong? I think we could find at least one time in the Old Testament where a person lied for the good of Israel and the New Testament says that she acted in faith. So to say pleasing GOD is as simple as obeying the Moral Law is questionable. Secondly, I didn't say we shouldn't look back for guidance, I said we shouldn't look back to find what rules we must keep and what we are allowed to do. There are certainly important principles as I spoke of in the Law, but for a Christian to focus on I can and I can't leaves no room for the guiding of the Spirit of GOD. GOD bless!! chris |
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8 | 4th commandment has been done away? | Ps 111:7 | Chris | 58036 | ||
GeeVee, I responded to Tim's post, if you want to check it out. GOD bless!! chris |
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9 | 4th commandment has been done away? | Ps 111:7 | Chris | 58035 | ||
Tim, Just because one has a new desire and calling doesn't mean one will contradict everything in the old calling. If I see Christ in everyone I meet and I represent Christ to everyone I meet, I would not break many of the ten commandments. But this doesn't mean my focus is 'I shouldn't lie!' rather it is I am seeking Christ in every endeavor. The Law of Love -ie Law of the Spirit, Law of Christ- will often coinside with the Moral Law, but Pauls says that if our focus is on the Law we are enslaved again to the flesh, so seek Christ in everything and abide in His love so that it permeates through you. This is a short summation of how I interpret Christian behavior. There are other issues such as Sanctification and Purity that do go along, but the focus is Christ and His love. The problem I would have with the Moral Laws or Morals of the Law is that it suggest that we still go to the Law and hunt for 'how should I behave or what should I do' which puts us right back where Paul is in Ch. 7 or Romans. I believe a study of the Law is important for understanding how Christ fulfilled it and to glean in broad principles to more closely seek Christ - ex. sexual purity is a broad principle versus going around trying not to commit incest, fornication, beastiality, and homosexuality.- GOD bless!! chris |
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10 | 4th commandment has been done away? | Ps 111:7 | Chris | 58027 | ||
rferg, GOD doesn't want us to live by the Ten Commandments because they cause in us death! The Ten are good, holy, and spiritual but as long as I have a flesh body they cause sin in me. See Romans 7:4-12(LIT): So that, my brothers, you also were made dead to the law through the body of Christ, for you to become Another's, to One raised from the dead, so that we may bear fruit to God. For when we were in the flesh, the passions of sin were working in our members through the law for the bearing of fruit unto death. But now we have been set free from the law, having died to that in which we were held, so as for us to serve in newness of spirit, and not in oldness of letter. What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Let it not be! But I did not know sin except through law; for also I did not know lust except the law said, "You shall not lust." (Ex. 20:17) But sin taking occasion through the commandment worked every lust in me; for apart from law, sin is dead. And I was alive apart from law once, but the commandment came, and sin came alive, and I died. And the commandment which was to life, this was found to be death to me; for sin taking occasion through the commandment deceived me, and through it killed me. So indeed the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good. Then that which is good, has it become death to me? Let it not be! But sin, that it might appear to be sin, having worked out death to me through the good, in order that sin might become excessively sinful through the commandment. It may be a nice world if everyone followed the Ten Commandments (TC) but people would still be going to hell if they didn't know Christ, so I'm not so sure that should be anything that we should be desiring. I don't live by the TC because Paul says we are no longer under the Law, he also claims that if you are under any of the Law you are under all of it (over 600 ordinances and commands). I have some questions and comments that I would appreciate a response to: 1. Can you show me anywhere in the New Testament where the TC are separated from the rest of the Mosaic Law? I don't see anything in the NT to suggest that the TC are separate and Paul quotes from the Law in Gal. 3:10, 'Accursed is everyone who does not abide by ALL things written in the book of the Law, to perform them.'(NASB, emphasis mine.) In vs. 12 of the same ch. Paul says, "However, the Law is not of faith; on the contrary, 'He who practices them shall live by them.'"(NASB) So, are you saved by faith or Law; because Paul says it can't be both! 2. When the council of Acts 15 got together why didn't they tell the Gentiles to follow the TC if they were required? The council came together because some believed, "It is necessary to circumcise them and to direct them to observe the Law of Moses."(NASB) If we were under the TC why didn't Peter and James conclude that the Gentiles must adhere to the commandments? 3. How do you interpret Gal. 4:21 - 31? How about Gal. 3:23 - 29? Are we back under the tutor of the Law, and if so, what does Paul mean when he says, 'we are no longer under a tutor.'? 4. How do you interpret II Cor. 3:7 18? Clearly, Paul is speaking of the TC, 'engraved on stones'. And these letters engraved on stones are called the Ministry of Death and the Ministry of Condemnation. If the TC caused in us death and condemnation, how can we now be under them and be free? We'll stop here, and I hope you will continue this discussion with me! GOD bless!! Chris |
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11 | Still under 10 C's? | Ps 111:7 | Chris | 58022 | ||
May-it, I disagree about making judgements. We must discern the truth of whatever we encounter, and we do this by considering the legitimicy of their sources. I have found several cases when AF pulls a verse, like Romans 7:12 out of context to make it sound like we are under the Law, when if you actually consider the whole chapter, that is not at all what Paul is suggesting. I would encourage you to do a careful study of the entire book of Galatians, as these believers also wanted to live under the Law. If anyone tells you that Paul didn't mean what he said, ask yourself why he said it. In Galatians Paul condemns the believers for returning to the Law, he shows that Grace and Law cannot be mixed, and that if you are under any of the Law you are under all of it! I will be praying for you my friend and I hope you will pray for me! GOD bless!! chris |
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12 | Is I Cor. 13:2 possible vs. I Cor. 13:9? | 1 Cor 13:2 | Chris | 8827 | ||
Nolan, you quote Mr. Henry, "II. He hints that these gifts are adapted only to a state of imperfection: We know in part, and we prophesy in part, v. 9. Our best knowledge and our greatest abilities are at present like our condition, narrow and temporary. Even the knowledge they had by inspiration was but in part. How little a portion of God, and the unseen world, was heard even by apostles and inspired men!" I previously would have agreed with Mr. Henry but only because, if I assume the gifts vs 2 are possible, with this view it is the only possible interpretation. But, even doing this I had that aggrevating feeling that the interpretation I gave these verses seemed doubtful at best. In truth I see no 'hinting' by Paul that vs. 1 and 2 are limited! Rather I see Paul concluding that Love is perfect(vs.8a), and he immedately starts writing about the limitations of gifts(vs.8b), specifically prophesy, tongues, and knowledge. Paul cant be suggesting human limitation in vs. 9 because he says even in the tongues of angles! I dont know of any other Scripture that speaks of a heavenly language but II Cor 12:4. With these facts in view, I am leaning toward the interpretation that Paul is exagerating to the point of impossibility in vs 1 and 2 to emphasis the point of Love. I see 'all faith' as perfect faith, including a perfect human faith (I deem this impossible) and a complete gift of faith (administered by the Holy Spirit, I see the gifts such as prophesy, knowledge, and faith as moment by moment gifts that change considering the situation. Therefore, I believe it is impossible to have all gifts of faith from the Holy Spirit.) I am now trying to consider whether this interpretation is allowable in the light of Mat. 17:20! If not, I will be forced to accept the limited interpretation I formerly had, and the one Mr. Henry had as well. Just my interpretation:-) GOD bless! |
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13 | Mat 17:20 vs I Cor 13:2? | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8787 | ||
Very impressive, Ray! I think you and I are on the same track when considering these Scriptures. I'll take a little more time to consider your answer, and get back to you! GOD bless! |
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14 | Please add prayer requests in user info | Not Specified | Chris | 8783 | ||
I'd like to make a suggestion, we may already be doing this, but can we start putting are prayer requests in our user information? May requests are there, and I would appreciate any and all prayer in the name of our Lord Jesus! I hope many others will (are) doing the same:-) | ||||||
15 | Please add prayer requests in user info | Bible general Archive 1 | Chris | 8813 | ||
I'd like to make a suggestion, we may already be doing this, but can we start putting are prayer requests in our user information? May requests are there, and I would appreciate any and all prayer in the name of our Lord Jesus! I hope many others will (are) doing the same:-) | ||||||
16 | Is I Cor. 13:2 possible vs. I Cor. 13:9? | Not Specified | Chris | 8782 | ||
In I Cor. 13, Paul says in vs 2, "And though I have the gift of prophecy, and undertand all mysteries and all knowledge, and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, but have not love, I am nothing." But, in vss 9,10 he states, "For we know in part and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away." Is it possible to prophecy and understand all mysteries and all knowledge, or not? |
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17 | Is I Cor. 13:2 possible vs. I Cor. 13:9? | 1 Cor 13:2 | Chris | 8817 | ||
In I Cor. 13, Paul says in vs 2, "And though I have the gift of prophecy, and undertand all mysteries and all knowledge, and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, but have not love, I am nothing." But, in vss 9,10 he states, "For we know in part and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away." Is it possible to prophecy and understand all mysteries and all knowledge, or not? |
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18 | Is I Cor. 13:2 possible vs. I Cor. 13:9? | 1 Cor 13:2 | Chris | 8815 | ||
In I Cor. 13, Paul says in vs 2, "And though I have the gift of prophecy, and undertand all mysteries and all knowledge, and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, but have not love, I am nothing." But, in vss 9,10 he states, "For we know in part and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away." Is it possible to prophecy and understand all mysteries and all knowledge, or not? |
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19 | I Cor. 13:2 vs 13:9; all knowledge? | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8781 | ||
Steve, I dont understand what you are saying. If one can prophesy all mysteries and all knowledge, why does Paul say we only prophesy in part and know in part? How are these not contradictory? What are you saying about pronouns? |
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20 | Retxar, additional thoughts please! | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8778 | ||
Retxar, I certainly see your point and for a time held the same view; however, Jesus is comparing the Kingdom of GOD to a mustard seed in your references, whereas, Jesus' rebuke of the deciples in Mat. 17:20 is because they're littleness of faith. And, as I interpret it, to hammer this point home He compares they're faith to the smallness of a mustard seed and says, your faith is infinitely smaller than a mustard seed! If you were to accept my interpretation, any additional thoughts? Please consider the second question as well! |
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