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|1||In Acts, how did disciples make disciple||Acts||DPMartin||234507|
|Thanks for the reply
Well I guess its better then being called a dummy. So then, what did you find out?
How can you expect an answer for that general subject scripturally when just about the whole NT is about discipleship? I mean the answer is, read the NT and ask questions about the particulars.
|2||Is your religion a true religion?||John 8:24||DPMartin||234503|
kinda figured youíd jump on that.
There was some priest (catholic) way back in the day (300-400 ad I think) canít remember who, of the eastern half of the church then. If my memory serves, refined, if you will, the theology of ďTrinityĒ and the catholic church adopted it as mainstream catholic theology. Never read it.
But even in Rabbinical circles it is understood that there is three forms (for the lack of a better term) of revelation of the Lord God. It is commonsense that a living being is present and speaks in itís presence that itís will be known. Even a pet dog does this when he needs to go out. And seeing that God who has given life to all that lives surly can do more then that. Donít need theological discussions to know that. Besides theology is of menís minds, Word of God is revelation that is of God, as Moses said, ď for I have not done them of mine own mindĒ (Num:16:28, Lev:24:12:) also when they were diving into Peterís shadow to be healed, it wasnít of Peterís mind or theology, it was the Presence of God with him, and the apparent power thereof.
|3||when Christ became sin for us,and how?||NT general||DPMartin||234491|
thanks for the reply, and the references. I looked through all the verses in the NT (KJV) with the word ďsinĒ and didnít find anything that said became or become but I searched for ďbecomeĒ or ďbecameĒ, so I missed those versus you found, again thanks.
Rom:8:3 it say (KJV) that He condemned sin in the flesh but it doesnít say He became sin. And it seems that the amplified is expressing that the spirit of what Paul was saying in 2Cor:5:21, by inserting the word ďvirtuallyĒ meaning: In respect of essence or effect, apart from actual form or specific manner; as far as essential qualities or facts are concerned.
Would affirm what I posted. In the case of Jesus, clean cleans the unclean, because otherwise, the unclean makes unclean. Therefore Jesus is always clean even in the presence of unclean (flesh).
|4||Which is first, wrath or Grace?||Rom 2:2||DPMartin||234420|
You have to be way incorrect, in your assumption "We get to know our faith- our Saviour through the written Word, not experientially." Though it is true that faith comes by hearing the Truth of God but no one believes what he donít know, nor follows what he donít know, hence knowing the Presence of God is required in order to follow.
What bible did Abraham read, or was the Lord God with him? Did Abraham read some book and then followed or went to the land that is now Israel? Or did Abraham experience the Presence of God, and believed (note: God speaks in His Presence)? Or what book did Noah read when he followed instructions to build and ark? Or what book did Moses read? Was Godís deliverance of Goliath into Davidís hand theory or experience. Was Job theorizing or experiencing, or was it, his friends were theorizing and Job was experiencing. And who was it that the Lord had a relationship with, Job, or Jobís friends? These people walked with the Lord their God, and documented that relationship (The Bible). The Way of the Lord God is to be with His People. Anyone who would think or say that itís theory or theology (the Bible) doesnít believe it is fact, or the truth. Such mind sets think to be superior to the Truth.
(Please note that all my questions in this conversation have been rhetorical in nature, I am not looking for you to have, or expect you to have answers.)
|5||Which is first, wrath or Grace?||Rom 2:2||DPMartin||234416|
Thanks for the reply
To put it plainly, a witness (in the case of Christianity) has experienced the Presence of God via the power of the Holy Spirit and his daily walk that the Lord is with him, and a theist knows his own thoughts on a matter, not necessarily based on personal experience. And the ignorant theist is correct about his own thoughts, or adopted theory/theology, therefore that makes him correct in his own eyes, but what he thinks isnít correct.
Jesus is always correct on and in all things, and in all matters, and anything else is contrary to that. So what ďmaturityĒ is there in holding on to something that may be contrary to what the Lord God thinks and knows?
In most cases the theist believes his perception supercedes the Truth of God, and argues against the Truth of God with the gainsaying. And without a relationship with the Truth of God how can the theist know? And Jesus Christ being the Truth of God revealed in the flesh in the world wouldnít withhold the Truth of God, unless one doesnít have that relationship. The theist has a relationship with his own thoughts, and imaginations, and those who agree with him.
|6||Which is first, wrath or Grace?||Rom 2:2||DPMartin||234412|
If you noticed, theology is a house of cards maintained by the intelligent, therefore they are more righteous then others who are not as intelligent.(Rom:10 the whole chapter)You canít control scripture, but you can create theology and manipulate how people see and read scripture.
The trouble is, theology makes people ignorant of the Lord Godís Presence. The religious leaders back in the day when Jesus walked with Israel had many different theologies some more influential in the culture then others by virtue of who many have had power and influence and what theology they were associated with. For example Pharisees Sadducees. But it was the fishermen and tax collectors and thieves that understood who Jesus is. Hence the intelligent was so smart they never recognized the true Presence of God. To what good is the gainsaying of one follower of one theology and the gainsaying of another in response, when it is Jesus the Christ that is the agreement? There is no theology in Heaven, and there is no disagreement with the Lord our God in Heaven.
This statement that is presumed to be by King David isnít theology, it is his experience with the Lord his God in the Lord Godís Presence with him.
Ps:18:2: The LORD is my rock, and my fortress, and my deliverer; my God, my strength, in whom I will trust; my buckler, and the horn of my salvation, and my high tower.
|7||Which is first, wrath or Grace?||Rom 2:2||DPMartin||234409|
Its very simple, God made the man and then made the garden and then placed the man in the garden. What is the life that God chose for the man? And now what is the life Adam and Eve have after they made their own choice? Hence we are born into that life, that is the place of sin, guilt, shame, blame, condemnation, and the choice to judge what is good or evil. Therefore, Jesus restoring us to Godís choice, which is Jesus His Son, hence the son ship shared, or given as John speaks of in 1 John. If one rejects restoration into the Presence of God via the Holy Spirit, then the result is not happiness with the Lord God. And since we are in the earth, in the world, if some one rejects the Presence of God in the place they be, (that was given to them) then that person should expect the Lord Jesus to not welcome that person into Heaven where He is.
There are many who honor sin and insist in itís power, to guilt, to shame to blame to condemn to judge another with and to bring men to death. When it is the Lord who is Life, Life eternal that says to fear Him. Hence honor and respect the power of Godís Grace which has always been, because God has always been.
There is no doubt in the mind of Christ, of the Fatherís Love for Him. Arenít we supposes to seek the mind of Christ to replace our own? Isnít the Fatherís Love, before anything, since it is true that "God is Love"?
|8||Which is first, wrath or Grace?||Rom 2:2||DPMartin||234403|
I can understand that what I posted would be confusing. Maybe this might clarify. Did Jesus come into the world to redeem and restore and deliver us, because God Loves, or because of Godís wrath?
|9||Which is first, wrath or Grace?||Rom 2:2||DPMartin||234399|
thanks for the reply
How can it be that we donít need mercy when scripture says this: (KJV)
Mt:5:7: Blessed are the merciful: for they shall obtain mercy.
Mt:9:13: But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.
Mt:23:23: Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone.
Lk:1:50: And his mercy is on them that fear him from generation to generation.
Lk:1:54: He hath holpen his servant Israel, in remembrance of his mercy;
Lk:1:72: To perform the mercy promised to our fathers, and to remember his holy covenant;
Lk:1:78: Through the tender mercy of our God; whereby the dayspring from on high hath visited us,
Why it is that the ďMercy seatĒ covers the ark of the covenant, and the law therein, and the Lord God said He would appear (Ex:25:22) and meet with them, meaning Israelites, if Mercy isnít needed?
Theory isnít Truth, at best it is merely what men imagine something they donít know to be, and in that, is no revelation that is of the Lord God, is there? And scripture is all about the Living Almighty God and His relationship with His People, which is revelation of the Lord God to His People, not theory. I do believe even in philosophy circles, theory is theory, and knowledge or knowing, is revelation, but donít hold me to that.
You said : ďwe know that God's wrath comes in response to sinĒ
Sorry its your belief that God's wrath comes in response to sin. If that were true then what is Jesusí offering on the Cross all about? Granted, Jesus suffered in our place, but wasnít that act the Mercy of God to have His Son His only begotten Son suffer in our place? And isnít it so that all manner of ďsinĒ shall be forgiven unto men, (Mt:12:31) How is that is a response of wrath to sin? The Lord Godís response to sin through His Son is Mercy and Forgiveness to the point where the forgivenís sins are forgotten.
Nobody said there isnít wrath, but most of that has been men to men, not God to men. At least as of yet. It would seem that the wrath would be toward the refusal of the Presence of His Holy Son our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ in the world.
|10||biblical persons ate scrolls God's word||Ezekiel||DPMartin||234366|
|Youíre welcome, I was thinking that Apostle John might be one, but it didnít look it up to verify, so I didnít mention him. I keep thinking there is some one else in the OT who did the same as in eating a book or scroll that was sweet and was sour in the belly. Some have had a burning coal put on their tung, maybe that is it.|
|11||Profiting from the Wicked?||Ps 105:44||DPMartin||234295|
|Yea, thatís it, couldn't find it with words like labour, work, righteous, and wicked. Though if you think about it, the result is the same, in both cases. Because the just are just, because the Lord God is with them.|
|12||God is His own witness||Ex 3:14||DPMartin||234292|
|In Ex:3:14: the Lord God says ďI am, that I amĒ . Now the first time the scriptures say ďthe Lord your GodĒ is in Ex:6:7: And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which bringeth you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians.
There is no proof but the witness isnít there? Therefore God is His own witness. No one comes to God unless it be through the Lord Jesus, and He is the Word of God and that is Spirit, hence the Presence of God. And Jesus came into the world to witness the Father to us(Jn:5:19), and He did say that the Father is His witness (Jn:8:18, Jn:5:36-37). Consider; man was made to be in His likeness and His image, and no man knows what God looks like, therefore only God is the witness that anyone is His likeness or image.
Satan has seen God and is able to fool the world that he is the likeness of God, hence make them believe he is God, unless the Presence of God is in the world.
|13||What the Lord God has done justifies||Luke 16:15||DPMartin||234281|
|What the Lord God has done justifies His people, not what they have done. It would be unrighteous to let mankind justify himself, for his own reasons and reasoning. And those who perpetrate with reasons and reasoning to justify themselves, pretend to be justified by their own abilities to reason, hence liars. God isnít known by reason, reasons and reasoning. He is known by His Grace through Faith, that is in the Lord Jesus Christ. Theists, deists and atheists justify not knowing God all the day long, but justification to be in the Presence of God all eternity long, is of God, in our Lord Jesus Christ.
Lk:10:29, Lk:16:15, Gal:3:8, Rom:3:30 Rom:8:33
|14||The Lord our God works through man, why?||Bible general Archive 4||DPMartin||234094|
|What the hay, are you talking about? If you didnít understand that the question was simply about man/God and the relationship between God and mankind then, why did you try to answer?
How is it, that you even know there is a living God, who gave His Son? Was it some great vision in the sky? Or did a man tell you about it? Did the scriptures just appear, did God write the scriptures, or did a man write them and many other men kept them?
Israel through a man, Abraham. Battles won back in the day of King David through a man, Joshua leading Israel to the promised land, Moses to bring Israel out of Egypt Noah to start a fresh human race. The Lord God didnít have to do it that way. Even and especially the Presence of the Word of God coming into the world via the Son of man.
|15||For the Loss of Heaven||Heb 3:8||DPMartin||234020|
|If oneís heart is in the Lord, then its in the right place and in a safe place. If you read in Ex:20 when the Lord God spoke directly to the people in verses 21: And the people stood afar off, and Moses drew near unto the thick darkness where God was. That to me is the difference, Mosesí heart was with the Lord his God, and the peoples heart was with their own lives that they valued more then being with God.|
|16||His diff relation to Creation Gen ch 1-2||Genesis||DPMartin||233864|
|What ever floats your boat there ďyouĒ. Itís not my job to prove anything to you. You do know how to use the internet donít you, google it.|
|17||His diff relation to Creation Gen ch 1-2||Genesis||DPMartin||233819|
|good job, well done|
|18||His diff relation to Creation Gen ch 1-2||Genesis||DPMartin||233810|
|You are right, you are not sure.
I wasnít asking to know about the various usage and arguments for and against the JEPD Documentary Hypothesis.
The use of words and their meaning by the Hebrews in scripture, is sufficient for bible study isnít it? In reference to Bible, its not relevant what those who didnít document the scriptures, or write them down, meant by their use of words, does it? What is relevant, is what the word means to those who wrote down the scripture. Which in this case is the Hebrews and their use of words thereof.
|19||His diff relation to Creation Gen ch 1-2||Genesis||DPMartin||233807|
|If you want a deeper explanation of words like ďYHWHĒ (Yahweh) and ďElohimĒ (Creator and Judge). There are Jewish web sites that provide explanation for the Hebrew language and words used in the original text in Genesis.|
|20||His diff relation to Creation Gen ch 1-2||Genesis||DPMartin||233791|
|It is not uncommon in the Christian community to know that Yahweh is Jesus Christ, and Jesus Christ is Yahweh and Yahweh is spelled YHWH in English as a direct translation and is pronounced in English Yahweh and in the (KJV) is written LORD. If you donít know that Jesus is the Word of God and that the Word of God is LORD of all creation then you donít know the LORD God of Israel. For God is known through His Word, our LORD Jesus Christ. Read the first few verses in the Gospel according to John. John explains the Word of God.|
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