Lockman - Bible questions and answers

Results 1 - 12 of 12
Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: divinlyinspiredsilks Ordered by Date
Results		Verse	Author	ID#
1	Are God's thoughts in Jesus Name?	Bible general Archive 1	divinlyinspiredsilks	52716
	vume, I don't quite understand what u are trying to say here, please explain? What is your question? Regards, Silks
2	divinlyinspiredsilks, can we be unsaved?	Matt 19:9	divinlyinspiredsilks	52616
	Searcher, We can not loose our salvation, it is not conditional and can never be lost. With Regard to Matthew 19:8 Apparently (according to John McArthur's Notes on this topic) there was a hotly debated difference of opnion that existed between the Rabbis Shammai and Hillel. the Shammaites interpreted the law rigidly, and permited a man to divorce his wife only if she was guilty of sexual immorality. The Hilleities took a whilly pragmatic approach, and permitted a man to divorce his wife indiscriminately. Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce? The Pharisees, misrepresented Deut 24:1-4. It was not a "command" for divorce, but a limitation on remarriage in the even of a divorce. While recognizing the legitimacy of divorce when a man "has foudn some uncleaness" (Deut 24:1) in his wife (sexual sin, by Jesus' interpretaion in v. 9), Mosses did not "command" divorce. Deu 24: 1-4 says: 1 If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, 2 and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man, 3 and her second husband dislikes her and writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, or if he dies, 4 then her first husband, who divorced her, is not allowed to marry her again after she has been defiled. That would be detestable in the eyes of the Lord . Do not bring sin upon the land the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance. McArthur's Interpretation says this: (which I believe) this passage does not command, commend, condone, or even suggest divorce. Rather , it recognizes that divorce occurs and permits it only on restricted grounds. The case presented here is designed to convey teh fact that divorcing produced defilement. Notice the following sequence: 1.) if a man finds any uncleaness (some impurity or something vile) in his wife, other than adultery, which was punished by execution, if he leaglly divorces her (allthough God hates divorce, as Mal 2:16 says" He has designed marriage for life, as Gen 2:24 declares; and he allowed divorce because of hard hearts, as Matt 19:8 reveals);3.) if she then marries another man: 4) if hte new husband dies or divorces her, then that women ould not rturn to her first husband (v.4). This is so because seh was "defiled" with such a defilement that is an abomination to the Lord and a sinful pollution of the Promised Land. What constitues defilemnet? ONly on thing is possible - she was defiled in remarriage because there was no ground for divorce. So when she remarried, she became an adulterous (Matt5:31,32) and is thus defiled so that her former husband can't take her back. Illegitimate divorce proliferates adultery. With regards to 1 Cornithians 7:10-15: From what my studies have led me to beleive, and according the verse 11 - if 2 Christians divorce, except for adultery, they are to remain unmarried or reconcile. When verse 14 talks about sanctification, it doesn't mean salvation, the sanctification of which is spoken is matrimonial and familial, not personal or spiritual, and means that the unsaved parter is set apart for temporal blessing bvecause the other belongs to God. One Christian in a marriage brings grace that spills over ont he spouse - even possibly le3ading them to slavation. The Christian need not seperate from an unbeliever because of the fear that the unbelieveing spouse may defile the children, in fact God promises the opposite. They would be unclean if both parents were unsaved, but the presence of one believing parent exposes the children to blessing and brings them protection. The presences of even one Crhsitian parent will protect chidren from undue spiritual harm and they will receive many blessings, and often that includes salvation. Verse 15: When an unbelieving spouse cannot tolerate teh partners faith and wants a divorce it is best to let that happen in order to preserve peace in the family (Rom 12:18) The bond of marriage is broken only by death (rom7:2) Adultery (Matt19:9) or an unbeliver's leaving.
3	When the Lord adds a person to the churc	Luke 23:42	divinlyinspiredsilks	52537
	Grace and Truth, I don't understand your question, please clarify. Regards, silks
4	When the Lord adds a person to the churc	Luke 23:42	divinlyinspiredsilks	52536
	Grace and Truth, I don't understand your question, please clarify. Regards, silks
5	Different types of spirit beings?	Bible general Archive 1	divinlyinspiredsilks	52527
	I believe that there are either Angels of the Lord and Demons from the Devil.
6	Why did God provide manna?	Ex 16:3	divinlyinspiredsilks	52525
	God provided them with Manna after they were complaining, because they were used to a certain "lifestyle" of abundance of food, and in the wilderness they did not have this luxury, so God answered their complaints by giving them manna. (read Exodus 16)
7	Can a divorced christian go to heaven	Matt 19:9	divinlyinspiredsilks	52521
	Matthew 19:9 9I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery." Also see Mark 10:12 Basically, I think it depends on why the Christian got divorced in the first place, as I know GOD hates divorce, except for adultery.
8	Ahaziah - 22 or 42?	2 Kin 8:26	divinlyinspiredsilks	52519
	According to 2 Kin 8:26 "Ahaziah was twenty-two years old when he became king, and he reigned in Jerusalem one year. His mother's name was Athaliah, a granddaughter of Omri king of Israel. " The error in 2 Chronoicals was a copyist's error, easily made due to the small stroke that differentiates two Heb. letters.
9	Whatwomaneventuallyhad7kidsthatwasbarren	1 Sam 2:21	divinlyinspiredsilks	52518
	Hannah, whom I believe you are asking the question about only had 6 children, the number seven refers to those women whom God Blesses.
10	But next question is why do believers re	Luke 23:42	divinlyinspiredsilks	52516
	I believe most Christians take it out of context and think that one must be baptized AND saved to get to heaven and that is simply incorrect, one MUST be saved, baptism is simply an outward sign to identify through the waters of baptism, with Christ's death, burial and resurrection. See Matt 28:19, Acts 19:5, Rom6:3,4:1, Cor 12:13; Gal3:27.
11	How do these passages relate 1 John 2:4	1 John 2:4	divinlyinspiredsilks	51415
	well, first and foremost, it is important to know that to go to heaven, one must Saved. Baptism will not get you into heaven, but Salvation will. We participate in baptism because we are being obediant to God. When we are truly saved, we show the fruit of the spirit, IE: being obediant to God's commandments and casting out all sin of our lives, and repenting when we do sin as we all will being human... Does this answer your question?
12	1 John 5:6 What is John saying Here?	1 John 5:6	divinlyinspiredsilks	51406
	What a good question, according to my research this is what John is saying in this Verse: The water and blood spoke of in this verse means an external, objective witness(es) to who Jesus Christ is. It is also referring to Jesus' baptism (water) and death(blood). According to John McArthur's Study Bible: John is combatting the dualism of false teachers who asserted that "Christ-spirit" departed from the man Jesus just prior to His death on the cross. John's point os to show that God has given testimony to the deity of Jesus through both His baptism and death. According to the greek word for bear witness and testimony (which are the same) the basic meaning is someone who has personal and immediate knowledge of soemthing.) When it says "the Spirit is truth", John is saying that there is no longer a need to strees the apostolic testimony (see vs. 1:1-4 and 4:14) but he writes of the testimony of God that comes through the Holy Spirit. And since the Spirit of God, God Himself and His Son, can not lie, His testimony must be true. I hope this has helped you, answer this question of yours. Regards, Divinlyinspiredsilks

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