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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: bstudent Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jesus couldn't of gone up to heaven. | Luke 23:43 | bstudent | 119171 | ||
Better late than never, but hopefully you've found the truth by now. Ancient Greek did not have puncuation as in modern languages such as English. Translators must supply such consistent with the original language meaning as understood in context. As you correctly state, Jesus was in the grave, Hades, for parts of 3 days so he couldn't be in heaven. Some have fabricated a notion based on apostate Judiasm of an "abode of dead souls," half of which is hot for the sinners and half of which is cozy for the righteous. But to this criminal, the notion of paradise would have conjerred up visions of God's origin Garden of Eden. In addition, the evildoer did not meet the requirements to go to heaven even at some later time. He was not “born again”—being neither baptized in water nor begotten by God’s spirit. Holy spirit was not poured out upon Jesus’ disciples until more than 50 days after the evildoer’s death. (John 3:3, 5; Acts 2:1-4) On the day of his death, Jesus had made with those ‘who had stuck with him in his trials’ a covenant for a heavenly kingdom. The evildoer had no such record of faithfulness and was not included.—Luke 22:28-30. Thus a more correct translation would be: "Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise." (See Mark 14:30 for similar wording.) Hope you get this. |
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2 | What does the verse Psalms 83:18 say? | Ps 83:18 | bstudent | 119085 | ||
Cassie: Your other response dodged your real question: Was it a cross or an upright stake? Here is proof it was a stake. The Greek word rendered “cross” in many modern Bible versions is stau·ros'. In classical Greek, this word meant merely an upright stake, or pale. Later it also came to be used for an execution stake having a crosspiece. The Imperial Bible-Dictionary acknowledges this, saying: “The Greek word for cross, [stau·ros'], properly signified a stake, an upright pole, or piece of paling, on which anything might be hung, or which might be used in impaling [fencing in] a piece of ground. . . . Even amongst the Romans the crux (from which our cross is derived) appears to have been originally an upright pole.”—Edited by P. Fairbairn (London, 1874), Vol. I, p. 376. Was that the case in connection with the execution of God’s Son? It is noteworthy that the Bible also uses the word xy'lon to identify the device used. A Greek-English Lexicon, by Liddell and Scott, defines this as meaning: “Wood cut and ready for use, firewood, timber, etc. . . . piece of wood, log, beam, post . . . cudgel, club . . . stake on which criminals were impaled . . . of live wood, tree.” It also says “in NT, of the cross,” and cites Acts 5:30 and ÞAc Ü10:39 as examples. (Oxford, 1968, pp. 1191, 1192) However, in those verses KJ, RS, JB, and Dy translate xy'lon as “tree.” (Compare this rendering with Galatians 3:13; Deuteronomy 21:22, 23.) The book The Non-Christian Cross, by J. D. Parsons (London, 1896), says: “There is not a single sentence in any of the numerous writings forming the New Testament, which, in the original Greek, bears even indirect evidence to the effect that the stauros used in the case of Jesus was other than an ordinary stauros; much less to the effect that it consisted, not of one piece of timber, but of two pieces nailed together in the form of a cross. . . . It is not a little misleading upon the part of our teachers to translate the word stauros as ‘cross’ when rendering the Greek documents of the Church into our native tongue, and to support that action by putting ‘cross’ in our lexicons as the meaning of stauros without carefully explaining that that was at any rate not the primary meaning of the word in the days of the Apostles, did not become its primary signification till long afterwards, and became so then, if at all, only because, despite the absence of corroborative evidence, it was for some reason or other assumed that the particular stauros upon which Jesus was executed had that particular shape.”—Pp. 23, 24; see also The Companion Bible (London, 1885), Appendix No. 162. Thus the weight of the evidence indicates that Jesus died on an upright stake and not on the traditional cross. As for God's name, he has only one, and most "scholars" agree that it should be pronounced Yahweh. Jehovah is the pronunciation that has been widely accepted and used for centuries in English. Jesus is how we pronounce the name of God's son in English, but not in Hebrew. To take God's name from Bible translations and replace it with titles that confuse Jesus and God's positions is of demonic origin. How would you like to write a book and then have your name expunged the over 7,000 times you originally wrote it! Any translation that follows this tradition started by the hypocritical Pharisees is woefully misleading. Hope this helps. |
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3 | How does foreknowledge preclude free? | Gen 6:6 | bstudent | 115917 | ||
"For when I have brought them into the land which I swore to their fathers, a land flowing with milk and honey, and they have eaten and filled themselves and become fat, then they will turn to other gods and serve them, and despise and scorn Me and break My covenant. And when many evils and troubles have befallen them, this [sacred] song will confront them as a witness, for it will never be forgotten from the mouths of their descendants. For I know their strong desire and the purposes which they are forming even now, before I have brought them into the land which I swore to give them.(Deut 31:20,21) Note that God’s ability to discern the outcome of their course did not mean that he was responsible for it or that it was what he wanted for them, but on the basis of what they were doing he could foresee the outcome. Similarly, on the basis of what is observed, a weather forecaster may predict the weather with a great degree of accuracy, but he does not cause it or necessarily like it. If God created Adam, foreknowing that he would choose to disobey Him, then logically he would have also foreordained that Adam would sin - thus no freewill. I would agree that Adam was created with the ability to disobey, but I further believe that a perfect "son of God" had a far greater capacity to obey, as the second Adam proved under far greater tests. If you have knowledge that your minor child has a drinking problem and you don't do all that is reasonably possible to prevent him from driving drunk, you will be held legally negligent. If you get him drunk and hand him the keys, you will be held responsible. God is so just that he will not violate his own perfect standards even when it costs him dearly (i.e. eye for eye, tooth for tooth, perfect life for perfect life.) If I thought the above were not true, I'd resign myself to agnosticism, if not atheism, as have many offended by the obvious contradiction that a loving God could foreknow all. |
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4 | Were humans a mistake? | Gen 6:6 | bstudent | 115881 | ||
"He is the Rock, his works are perfect, and all his ways are just. A faithful God who does no wrong, upright and just is he. They have acted corruptly toward him; to their shame they are no longer his children, but a warped and crooked generation." (Deut 32:4,5) Notice that God did preserve 8 souls alive while destroying the wicked. (2 Peter 2:4-9) Searcher56 believes "God knows all things (past and present." I assume he, like most, would also include future. While realizing that God has the ability to look to the future and does so when needed to ensure that his will is accomplished, he never interferes with our free will. If God knew that he had created a man, Adam, that would sin and that this would result in all the murders, rapes, injustices, etc. that followed, Deut 32:4 would be a lie. No moral person would create and market a product that he knew would cause untold misery to millions. God has many awesome abilities that he uses in harmony with his perfect standards. To illustrate, suppose you had the most beautiful voice in the world. Would you therefore sing every word you wanted to communicate to others. Of course not, for this would detract from your other qualities - your wit, compassion, etc. So too with God, to choose to know every action that his creatures will take before they do, and even before creating them, would make him responsible, obviously detracting from his other qualities and abilities - perfect judge, loving father, and so on. If God knows what we are going to do before we do it, why does he plead for people to turn around and do what's right? (Eze 18:30-32) God said to Abraham: "Do not lay a hand on the boy,. Do not do anything to him. Now I know that you fear God, because you have not withheld from me your son, your only son." Everything being done on the earth is clearly not God's will. Still some believe that God "takes us when it's our time.) The truth is revealed in verses like Psalm 55:23: "But you, O God, will bring down the wicked into the pit of corruption; bloodthirsty and deceitful men will not live out half their days." Many things taught as fundamental truths malign the true God and prevent students of the Bible from grasping the "solid food belonging to mature ones." Hope this helps you draw closer to God. (James 4:8) |
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5 | Adam: Chief Sinner? | 1 Pet 3:19 | bstudent | 115513 | ||
Romans 5:12-14. No one has sinned like Adam because we have inherited imperfection as a result of his transgression. Jeses resembled Adam because of his sinlessness. How many people do you know that have caused the misery that Adam caused? Now please tell me the Scriptural basis for putting Adam in Heaven, if in fact, you concur with the commentary to which I was responding . |
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6 | Who are the spirits? | 1 Pet 3:19 | bstudent | 115485 | ||
What does 1 Peter 3:19, 20 mean? “In this state [in the spirit, following his resurrection] also he [Jesus] went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days, while the ark was being constructed, in which a few people, that is, eight souls [“souls,” KJ, Dy; “people,” TEV, JB; “persons,” RS], were carried safely through the water.” (Were those “spirits in prison” the souls of the humans who had refused to take heed to Noah’s preaching before the Flood, and was the way now open for them to go to heaven? Comparison of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 with Genesis 6:2-4 shows that these spirits were angelic sons of God that had materialized and married in Noah’s day. At 1 Peter 3:19, 20 the Greek word for “spirits” is pneu'ma·sin, while the word rendered “souls” is psy·khai'. The “spirits” were not disembodied souls but disobedient angels; the “souls” here referred to were living people, humans, Noah and his household. What was preached to “spirits in prison” must therefore have been a message of judgment.) What is the meaning of 1 Peter 4:6? “In fact, for this purpose the good news was declared also to the dead, that they might be judged as to the flesh from the standpoint of men but might live as to the spirit from the standpoint of God.” (Were these “dead” the people who had died prior to the death of Christ? As already shown, the dead are not “the spirits in prison.” Those spirits were disobedient angels. And preaching would not have benefited physically dead humans because, as Ecclesiastes 9:5 says, they “are conscious of nothing at all,” and Psalm 146:4 adds that at death a person’s “thoughts do perish.” But Ephesians 2:1-7, 17 does refer to persons who were spiritually dead and who came to life spiritually as a result of accepting the good news.) Hope this helps. |
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7 | Why did Jesus Go to Hell | 1 Pet 3:19 | bstudent | 115483 | ||
Hell equals Sheol(Hebrew) equals Hades (Greek) equalsGrave (English) Inconsistent translations such as the King James have mislead readers and caused truth to be veiled. Hades will be destroyed when death is done away with. There will be no need for the grave when all worthy of a resurrection have arisen from it and no one dies anymore, but rather enjoy, everlasting life. (See 1 Cor 15:24-26 and Rev 20:13-15) So where did Jesus go? The grave. Why? He died. |
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8 | Jesus speaking to spirits in prison? | 1 Pet 3:19 | bstudent | 115481 | ||
What does 1 Peter 3:19, 20 mean? “In this state [in the spirit, following his resurrection] also he [Jesus] went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days, while the ark was being constructed, in which a few people, that is, eight souls [“souls,” KJ, Dy; “people,” TEV, JB; “persons,” RS], were carried safely through the water.” (Were those “spirits in prison” the souls of the humans who had refused to take heed to Noah’s preaching before the Flood, and was the way now open for them to go to heaven? Comparison of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 with Genesis 6:2-4 shows that these spirits were angelic sons of God that had materialized and married in Noah’s day. At 1 Peter 3:19, 20 the Greek word for “spirits” is pneu'ma·sin, while the word rendered “souls” is psy·khai'. The “spirits” were not disembodied souls but disobedient angels; the “souls” here referred to were living people, humans, Noah and his household. What was preached to “spirits in prison” must therefore have been a message of judgment.) What is the meaning of 1 Peter 4:6? “In fact, for this purpose the good news was declared also to the dead, that they might be judged as to the flesh from the standpoint of men but might live as to the spirit from the standpoint of God.” (Were these “dead” the people who had died prior to the death of Christ? As already shown, the dead are not “the spirits in prison.” Those spirits were disobedient angels. And preaching would not have benefited physically dead humans because, as Ecclesiastes 9:5 says, they “are conscious of nothing at all,” and Psalm 146:4 adds that at death a person’s “thoughts do perish.” But Ephesians 2:1-7, 17 does refer to persons who were spiritually dead and who came to life spiritually as a result of accepting the good news.) Hope this helps. |
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9 | any thought s on this | 1 Pet 3:19 | bstudent | 115480 | ||
What does 1 Peter 3:19, 20 mean? “In this state [in the spirit, following his resurrection] also he [Jesus] went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days, while the ark was being constructed, in which a few people, that is, eight souls [“souls,” KJ, Dy; “people,” TEV, JB; “persons,” RS], were carried safely through the water.” (Were those “spirits in prison” the souls of the humans who had refused to take heed to Noah’s preaching before the Flood, and was the way now open for them to go to heaven? Comparison of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 with Genesis 6:2-4 shows that these spirits were angelic sons of God that had materialized and married in Noah’s day. At 1 Peter 3:19, 20 the Greek word for “spirits” is pneu'ma·sin, while the word rendered “souls” is psy·khai'. The “spirits” were not disembodied souls but disobedient angels; the “souls” here referred to were living people, humans, Noah and his household. What was preached to “spirits in prison” must therefore have been a message of judgment.) What is the meaning of 1 Peter 4:6? “In fact, for this purpose the good news was declared also to the dead, that they might be judged as to the flesh from the standpoint of men but might live as to the spirit from the standpoint of God.” (Were these “dead” the people who had died prior to the death of Christ? As already shown, the dead are not “the spirits in prison.” Those spirits were disobedient angels. And preaching would not have benefited physically dead humans because, as Ecclesiastes 9:5 says, they “are conscious of nothing at all,” and Psalm 146:4 adds that at death a person’s “thoughts do perish.” But Ephesians 2:1-7, 17 does refer to persons who were spiritually dead and who came to life spiritually as a result of accepting the good news.) Hope this helps. |
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10 | 1 Peter 3:19-20. What does it mean? | 1 Pet 3:19 | bstudent | 115478 | ||
What does 1 Peter 3:19, 20 mean? “In this state [in the spirit, following his resurrection] also he [Jesus] went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days, while the ark was being constructed, in which a few people, that is, eight souls [“souls,” KJ, Dy; “people,” TEV, JB; “persons,” RS], were carried safely through the water.” (Were those “spirits in prison” the souls of the humans who had refused to take heed to Noah’s preaching before the Flood, and was the way now open for them to go to heaven? Comparison of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 with Genesis 6:2-4 shows that these spirits were angelic sons of God that had materialized and married in Noah’s day. At 1 Peter 3:19, 20 the Greek word for “spirits” is pneu'ma·sin, while the word rendered “souls” is psy·khai'. The “spirits” were not disembodied souls but disobedient angels; the “souls” here referred to were living people, humans, Noah and his household. What was preached to “spirits in prison” must therefore have been a message of judgment.) What is the meaning of 1 Peter 4:6? “In fact, for this purpose the good news was declared also to the dead, that they might be judged as to the flesh from the standpoint of men but might live as to the spirit from the standpoint of God.” (Were these “dead” the people who had died prior to the death of Christ? As already shown, the dead are not “the spirits in prison.” Those spirits were disobedient angels. And preaching would not have benefited physically dead humans because, as Ecclesiastes 9:5 says, they “are conscious of nothing at all,” and Psalm 146:4 adds that at death a person’s “thoughts do perish.” But Ephesians 2:1-7, 17 does refer to persons who were spiritually dead and who came to life spiritually as a result of accepting the good news.) Hope this helps. |
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