Results 1 - 20 of 20
|Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions
Author: wdc Ordered by Date
|1||what good is it to Ahaz||Is 7:14||wdc||102865|
|I agree with the virgin birth translation. But if it is only a prophecy of the virgin of birth of Jesus, (and it is a prophecy of the virgin birth of Jesus) what good is it for a sign to Ahaz?
|2||When ever you want to||Ex 21:10||wdc||102734|
|Here is what puzzles me. All these guys in the Bible were used of God and even in David's case was called a man after God's own heart. But adultry didn't seem to be a problem to them. I mean David was just out one night starring at the stars or thinking about some kingly business, and saw this woman and decided to have sex with her. Naturally it led to other problems, but what was he thinking? Adultry was wrong then, how could he have so easily done this? And Judah in Gen. 38, he was just going down the road to work and saw a woman of the side of the road and decided to have sex. But today such a big deal is made over a pastor that is divorced or married to a divorced woman (it's almost as if that is the only qualification given in the N. T. for pastors and deacons)that it causes me to wander, if the men in the O.T. could take sex so lightly and God still blessed them and used them, how come it is so serious in the N.T.? It seems that Paul mentions sexual sins every few verses. I am not having immoral thoughts or wanting another wife, I have just always wandered about this. Any ideas or thoughts?
|3||why||NT general Archive 1||wdc||51841|
|If there is no scriptural basis for it, why do Bible believing people and Churches practice it?
I cannot see into a man's heart, how can I know that he/she has unrepentant sin so as not to serve them?
I see some serious problems here.
|4||Closed Communion||NT general Archive 1||wdc||51835|
|I need some help understanding closed communion. Closed communion being that only memebers of the local Church (those with their names on the roll) can praticipate. Is this what it is? Why is it practiced? Is there any scriptural basis to it?
Can anyone help me? I did a search and came up with nothing.
|5||why desire faith, healing, miracles, etc||1 Cor 12:30||wdc||29005|
Why wouldn't desire the gift of wisdom, faith, healing, miracles or discernment, so I could be a blessing and a help to other people instead of tongues?
It seems to me that the main reasons given by those today for the desireing the gift of tongues is to build up oneself, I could use the other gifts to help others. Isn't that what the gospel is about and why Jesus came, to help others?
|6||Where are you getting all this informati||Acts 2:6||wdc||28728|
Where are you getting all this information? Do you have it in your library, or is it a web site? I would like to have access to information like that.
On another subject, this is also one of the things that confuses today, all the different translations and greek text and such. I have currently gone back to the KJV because it is the one I was raised in (but I really don't like reading it) and I get really confused and disheartened trying to study with the others when they say different things. I know interpretation is not an exact science, but somehow, it really bothers me. Any help here?
|7||your statement||1 Cor 12:30||wdc||28727|
I could infer from your statement:
"Why would we not want to recieve it when the Holy Gives you power to witness change your life style guide you in your life and on and on i could go"
that if I do not speak in tongues that the Holy Spirit will not guide me, empower me to witness, nor change my lifestyle. Surely you are not saying this?
As to the question why would I not want to receive the gift of speaking in tongues, the main reason I might not want to receive that particular gift is if it is not the gift that the Holy Spirit is trying to give me, 1 Cor. 12:4-11. Not everybody is intended to speak in tongues. The Bible is clear about that. If I tried to get a gift or immulate a gift God did not intend for me, would I not be going against God's will for me?
|8||What does "after glory" mean?||Zech 2:8||wdc||28250|
|What does this mean, "After glory He has sent me against the nations..." The NKJV reads "He sent Me after glory,"|
|9||What if?||Rom 7:17||wdc||13193|
Don't think this is stupid, or that I am an idoit. I was thinking about this last night and this thought popped into my head.
When Adam sinned, he died, not physically, but spiritually. The Bible says in Rom. 8:3-4.
"For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, on account of sin: He condemned sin in the flesh, (4) that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit."
I understand this to mean that the law could not be kept in the O.T. (or the N.T. for that matter) because there was no spirit, nor Holy Spirit given to empower man to do so. The requirements of the law are fulfilled in us now because of what Christ did and the work of the Holy Spirit in us in regeneration.
Now here is the wierd part. What if man, since the fall of Adam, has no spirit. (Gen. 5:3 "Adam...Begot a son in his own likeness, after his own image," It is not said that Seth was born in the image of God.) The spirit that Adam had received was directly from God, when God breathed into him the breath of life, and I believe that is the part that died, or departed when he sinned. When we are born again, we receive the Spirit of God within our beings, that's what makes us born again.
Again, I'm just thinking out loud, I have a very vivid imagination, and sometimes it roams to far away places.
What does anyone think about this?
|10||2 Cor. 1:20||Romans||wdc||12713|
What about 2 Cor. 1:20, "For all the promises of God in Him (Jesus) are Yes, and in Him Amen, to the glory of God,..." How does this apply to the promises made in the O.T. and the N.T.?
|11||Heb. 8 and Jer. 31||Matt 10:5||wdc||12700|
Here is another one. Hebrews 8:7-13.In verse 9, this is specifically given to Israel and Judah, (the Jews). In Jeremiah 31:31-34, where the writer of Hebrews is quoting from, the promise is specifically for the Jews also, and even more specific, if I understand it right, it will be enforced after their restoration to their own land, Jer. 31:23-30. But we use this as a picture of salvation in the New Testament, making it applicable to all people.
Do you have any thoughts here.
|12||Old T. and New T.||Matt 10:5||wdc||12699|
|Thanks again Bill.
I would like to hear your opinion on how to reconcile the God of the O.T. with the God of the N.T. To many people, there appears to be two God's, one in the O.T. and one in the N.T. How would you explain this to someone. The main question I get is the one how God commanded all the killing in the O.T. and was so hard on the people and in the N.T. it is all about life and grace.
Hope this makes sense.
|13||what's the difference in these two||Matt 10:5||wdc||12587|
|I have been taught in the past that not all scripture is to be interpreted as for us today. Matthew 10:5-15 is one of those passages that is not supposed to be for us today, however v.16 is often applied to us as we go about our daily lives. The reasoning given for not applying this literally to us today is that Jesus was speaking directly to the people there with Him, v.5 and not in general.
My question is why then is Matthew 28:18-20 applied literally to us today as the great commission. Jesus was only speaking to those there with Him v. 18 "And Jesus came and spoke to them..." and not generally.
I am told that the phrase in v. 20 "And lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." makes this passage applicable to us today, but the word "age" could mean their age and not ours.
Does anyone have any input on this?
|14||Could Jesus like Adam have sinned?||Phil 2:7||wdc||4996|
|Does this mean that Jesus could have sinned? If He was like Adam before the fall, then He must have had the capacity to sin if He had chosen to.
In John, we read these verses.
(John 5:19) Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
(John 6:38) For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
(John 5:30) I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.
In these verse's, and many others, it sounds like Jesus is walking by and being lead by the Spirit just like we are, only He obeyed everytime. Some say it was not possible for Him to sin, I tend to believe that He could have, just like Adam. The Bible even likens Jesus to Adam:
(1 Cor 15:45) And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
What do you think, could He have sinned or not?
|15||Not preached on??||Matt 26:13||wdc||4805|
|If I understand this verse, Jesus is saying that whenever the gospelis preached, what the woman did should also be spoken about.
(Mat 26:13) Verily I say unto you, Wheresoever this gospel shall be preached in the whole world, there shall also this, that this woman hath done, be told for a memorial of her.
Why don't we hear this story told when the gospel is preached? Why is it never mentioned in the Bible after this?
|16||...||Bible general Archive 1||wdc||4056|
|In verse 31 how do you know that Jesus was speaking to all the disciples and not just Peter?
Is it based on the use of "you" and "thee", or do you have some other support?
|17||What does this verse mean?||Heb 10:26||wdc||2002|
|What does this verse mean and how is it applied today?|
|18||Why one word for wind and spirit?||Ps 51:10||wdc||2001|
|I don't know if I can word this correctly, but my question is, isn't there another word for spirit besides wind, the Hebrew word ruwach meaning wind.
Even in the N.T. the word for spirit is wind or breath. When they were talking everyday and some one said something about the Spirit of God, did he say the (ruwach) wind of God, and then when a storm came up, did he say the (ruwach) wind is blowing? I know this sounds dumb, but I'll never know if I don't ask.
|19||why did God create the world||Gen 1:1||wdc||1061|
|Something I've been thinking about for a while. God is all knowing, and a loving, merciful God. So He knew all the suffering, pain, and evil that would happen in the world. Why then did He create it in the first place and put mankind on it. Why not just not create it, if He had not created it, we would have never none it, and look at all the suffering and evil that would have been avoided. Anyone have any thoughts? wdc|
|20||Who were the son's of God in Job?||Gen 6:4||wdc||242|
|If the son's of God were the human descendants of Seth, who the son's of God in Job 1:6?|