Results 1 - 8 of 8
|Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions
Author: jlhetrick Ordered by Date
|1||sending or being sent?||Is 48:16||jlhetrick||206207|
|Isa 48:16 (ESV)
16 Draw near to me, hear this:
from the beginning I have not spoken in secret,
from the time it came to be I have been there."
And now the Lord God has sent me, and his Spirit."
Isa 48:16 (KJV)
16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord God, and his Spirit, hath sent me.
For those original language scholars, which translation best represents the original language?
For others, please do not enter into a debate regarding which translation if "the best". Not my concern here even If I believed an answer.
I'm engaged in a study and wanted to know if the Spirit participated in the sending (as the KJV indicates) or was also being sent (as the ESV indicates).
Thanks in advance for your responses.
|This is a quote from a typed note pinned to the bulletin board in the breakroom where I work.
Is this an accurate statement? Please give biblical support for your answer.
Thanks in advance:
Statement on board:
"It is biblical that if you intentionally cause hurt and strife to another it will be returned to you in greater proportion in this life."
Please only answer with biblical reference supporting your answer.
Thanks and God bless,
|3||On Prayer||Bible general Archive 3||jlhetrick||190605|
|"It is the highest activity of the human soul, and therefore it is at the same time the ultimate test of a manís true spiritual condition. There is nothing that tells the truth about us as Christian people so much as our prayer life. . . . Ultimately, therefore, a man discovers the real condition of his spiritual life when he examines himself in private, when he is alone with God. . . . And have we not all known what it is to find that, somehow, we have less to say to God when we are alone than when we are in the presence of others? It should not be so; but it often is. So that it is when we have left the realm of activities and outward dealings with other people, and are alone with God, that we really know where we stand in a spiritual sense" (Martyn Lloyd-Jones quoted by John MacArthur Jr. (1995). Alone with God.|
|4||Burying our dead||Gen 4:10||jlhetrick||190552|
|Based on History- what is the origin of man burying our own dead?
I'll explain my reason for asking this question after reading responses.
|5||Abiding in Christ||Bible general Archive 3||jlhetrick||183400|
|"During the life of Jesus on earth, the word He chiefly used when speaking of the relations of the disciples to Himself was: "Follow me." When about to leave for heaven, He gave them a new word, in which their more intimate and spiritual union with Himself in glory should be expressed. That chosen word was: "Abide in me."
"It is to be feared that there are many earnest followers of Jesus from whom the meaning of this word, with the blessed experience it promises, is very much hidden. While trusting in their Saviour for pardon and for help, and seeking to some extent to obey Him, they have hardly realized to what closeness of union, to what intimacy of fellowship, to what wondrous oneness of life and interest, He invited them when He said, "Abide in me." This is not only an unspeakable loss to themselves, but the Church and the world suffer in what they lose.
|6||Regarding earlier post (thread) 156868||2 Tim 2:25||jlhetrick||158128|
|I'm asking this question in regards to a different post by fwiaskycap regarding his dream. (refer to post 156868)
I agree with everyone in relation to not assuming a dream is from God especially when the dream in question doesnít point specifically to scripture. I also agree with any who pointed out the unloving and unfriendly rebukes that CAP received that bordered on abusive. But I have come to expect this on the forum from the high and mighties. I wonder if Cap had been sitting in your living room or Sunday school class and asked the same question if he/she would have received the same type of responses, humm.
My question is. Do all of you believe that God doesnít intend to include dreams as a means of speaking to Christians? And why is it that every time a personís experience is mentioned there is a quick and sharp rebuke? Does God not use our experiences to mold and grow us? Because someone includes experience does not necessarily mean they are calling that experience equal to the word of God. If they do, then rebuke them, if they are not, then patiently coach them to understand the truth. Goodness.
|7||Divorce: believer or unbeliever||Matt 19:8||jlhetrick||153583|
|OK, I know this is a common topic and I did do a search and find a lot on the particular verse. I did not however, find the question or answer I am looking for so I'll ask here.
1Cor. 7: 15 says regarding the bonds of marriage:
"But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace." (KJV)
My question is, what exactly does "unbelieving" mean here. I'm not playing on words here.
In the time in which Paul was writing, many were hearing the gospel preached (with no prior knowledge) and believing and were already married. I can see the serious conflict this would cause, especially in a Jewish home. If the unbeliever wants ot leave, it's his/her choice and the left behind believer is not in bondage to the vows. Easy to understand.
Not so easy today in many cases. How would one know if his/her spouse is an "unbeliever"? Because someone professes to be a believer does not necessarily make him/her one.
If a man wants a divorce, and his wife presents him with the will of God from scripture he might say, I'm a believer but I'm divorcing you anyway.
Where does this leave the wife in regards to her freedom to remarry?
Because he confesses to be a believer while intentionally disobeying God, is the wife now obligated to remain unmarried for the rest of her life?
|8||Help with Romans 3:25b||Rom 3:25||jlhetrick||152672|
|Can someone help me understand the meaning of Romans 3:25 where Paul talks about God, "in His forbearance" leaving the sins committed beforehand unpunished? I know that "beforehand" is referring to the time before Jesus actually died and rose again. What does Paul mean that those sins were left unpunished? Is it that those sinners who offered sacrifices had their sins forgiven on a "temporary" basis (as they looked foreword in faith to Christ's coming (even though they didn't know His name and the details)? Then, the atonement for all sin (past, present, future) through Jesus Christ made the confessed sin beforehand permanently and actually atoned for? Is this accurate and/or is there more to it?|